Free LSAT Practice Tests: Full-Length with Answers


  1. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #1 (Answers)
  2. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #2 (Answers)
  3. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #3 (Answers)
  4. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #4 (Answers)
  5. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #5 (Answers)

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Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-6

A newsstand will display exactly one copy each of six different magazines--M, O, P, S, T, and V--in a single row on a rack. Each magazine will occupy exactly one of the six positions, numbered consecutively 1 through 6.

The magazines must be displayed in accordance with the following rules:

Either P or else T occupies position 1.

Either S or else T occupies position 6.

M and O, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions.

V and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions.


1.Which of the following is an order in which the six magazines can be arranged, from position 1 through position 6?

(A) M, O, P, S, V, T

(B) P, O, S, M, V, T

(C) P, V, T, O, M, S

(D) P, V, T, S, O, M

(E) T, P, V, M, O, S


2.If P occupies position 3, which of the following must be true?

(A) M occupies position 4.

(B) O occupies position 2.

(C) S occupies position 5.

(D) T occupies position 6.

(E) V occupies position 2.

3.If O and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, then T can be in position

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 6


4.Which of the following can be true?

(A) M occupies position 4 and P occupies position 5.

(B) P occupies position 4 and V occupies position 5.

(C) S occupies position 2 and P occupies position 3.

(D) P occupies position 2.

(E) S occupies position 5.

5. If V occupies position 4, then T must occupy the position that is numbered exactly one lower than the position occupied by

(A) M

(B) O

(C) P

(D) S

(E) V


6.If S and V, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, which of the following must be true?

(A) M occupies position 4.

(B) O occupies position 2.

(C) P occupies position 1.

(D) S occupies position 6.

(E) T occupies position 6.


7. Patel: Although enrollment in the region's high school has been decreasing for several years, enrollment at the elementary school has grown considerably. Therefore, the regional school board proposes building a new elementary school.

Quintero: Another solution would be to convert some high school classrooms temporarily into classrooms for elementary school students.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to support Quintero's alternative proposal?

(A) Some rooms at the high school cannot be converted into rooms suitable for the use of elementary school students.

(B) The cost of building a high school is higher than the cost of building an elementary school.

(C) Although the birth rate has not increased, the number of families sending their children to the region's high school has increased markedly.

(D) A high school atmosphere could jeopardize the safety and self-confidence of elementary school students.

(E) Even before the region's high school population began to decrease, several high school classrooms rarely needed to be used.


Question 8 is based on the following graph

8.Which of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in the rates of decline between 1980 and 1990 in population of puffins and arctic terns, two kinds of seabirds for which sand eels serve as a primary source of food?

(A) Puffins switched in part from their preferred food of sand eels to rockfish and other fish, but arctic terns did not.

(B) The marked decline in the populations of puffins and arctic terns that occurred on Alair Island did not occur on other similar islands nearby, where there are substantial populations of both species.

(C) The decline in sand eels was due to changes in environmental conditions that affected the reproduction of eels rather than to overfishing by people.

(D) The main diet of puffin and arctic tern chicks on Alair Island in 1980 consisted of young sand eels.

(E) Unusual severe weather that disrupted the breeding cycle of the sand eels of Alair Island in 1989 also damaged the nests of puffins but not those of arctic terns.


9. Peter: More than ever before in Risland, college graduates with science degrees are accepting permanent jobs in other fields. That just goes to show that scientists in Risland are not being paid enough.

Lila:  No, it does not. These graduates are not working in science for the simple reason that there are not enough jobs in science in Risland to employ all of these graduates.

Which of the following, if true in Risland, would most undermine the reasoning in Peter's argument?

(A) The college graduates with science degrees who are not working in science are currently earning lower salaries than they would earn as scientists.

(B) Fewer college students than ever before are receiving degrees in science.

(C) The number of jobs in science has steadily risen in the last decade.

(D) A significant number of college graduates with science degrees worked at low-paying jobs while they were in college.

(E) Every year some recent college graduates with science degrees accept permanent jobs in nonscientific fields.


Questions 10-15

Exactly six lectures will be given one at a time at a one-day conference. Two of the lectures--S and T--will be given by resident speakers, the other four--W, X, Y, and Z--will be given by visiting speakers. At least two but no more than four of the lectures will be given before lunch; the remaining lectures will be given after lunch. The following conditions must be observed:

 S will be the fourth lecture.

 Exactly one of the lectures by a resident will be given before lunch.

 Y will be given at some time before T is given.

 If W is given before lunch, Y will be given after lunch.


10.Which of the following can be the order of lectures and lunch at the conference?

(A) W, X, Lunch, Y, S, T, Z

(B) X, Y, T, Lunch, S, Z, W

(C) Y, T, Lunch, S, W, X, Z

(D) Z, T, W, S, Lunch, Y, X

(E) Z, W, Y, S, Lunch, X, T


11.If exactly two lectures are given before lunch, they must be

(A) X and T

(B) Y and T

(C) Z and T

(D) Z and W

(E) Z and Y


12.If exactly three lectures, including Y and Z, are given before lunch, which of the following can be true?

(A) T is the second lecture.

(B) T is the fifth lecture.

(C) W is the third lecture.

(D) X is the first lecture.

(E) X is the third lecture.


13.If T is the sixth lecture, which of the following must be true?

(A) X is the first lecture.

(B) X is the second lecture.

(C) Exactly two lectures are given before lunch.

(D) Exactly three lectures are given before lunch.

(E) Exactly four lectures are given before lunch.


14.If S and Z are both given after lunch, which of the following must be true?

(A) X is given before lunch.

(B) X is given after lunch.

(C) Y is given before lunch.

(D) T is the third lecture.

(E) Z is the fifth lecture.


15.Which of the following lectures CANNOT be given

immediately before lunch?

(A) S

(B) T

(C) X

(D) Y

(E) Z


Questions 16-22

A circus has seven fenced enclosures, numbered 1 through 7, for two animals: a lion and a tiger. Each enclosure is connected to adjacent enclosures by interior gates. There are exactly eight such gates, each connecting one enclosure to exactly one other enclosure: enclosure 1 is connected to enclosures 2, 3 and 4; enclosure 3 to enclosures 1, 2, 4, and 5; and enclosure 5 to enclosures 3, 6, and 7. These gates provide the only connections between enclosures. Occasionally a trainer moves the animals. Taking either animals from one enclosure to an adjacent enclosure through a gate is called a " transfer."  The following conditions are strictly observed:

The two animals cannot be together in any enclosure or gate.

Transfers cannot occur simultaneously

In moving either one animal or both to a specified enclosure or enclosures, the minimum number of transfers needed to achieve the specified result are used.


16.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7, the tiger could be in which of the following enclosures when all of the transfers have been completed?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 6


17.If the tiger is in enclosure 5 and the lion is in enclosure 3, moving the tiger to which of the following enclosures requires exactly two transfers?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

(E) 7


18.If the lion is in enclosure 6 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7 and the tiger to enclosure 6, then which of the following must be true?

(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 at some time during the move.

(B) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 twice.

(C) One of the two animals is transferred to enclosure 3 twice.

(D) Three transfers to enclosure 5 are made.

(E) At least one transfer is made to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.


19.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 4, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 5 and the tiger to enclosure 7, then exactly how many transfers must be made?

(A) Four

(B) Five

(C) Six

(D) Seven

(E) Eight


20.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be transferred to enclosure 3 and the tiger to enclosure 1, then which of the following CANNOT be true?

(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 2 in the first transfer.

(B) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.

(C) The lion is transferred to enclosure 4 in the second transfer.

(D) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 in the first transfer.

(E) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.


21. If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 5, then the second transfer could be a transfer of the

(A) lion to enclosure 2

(B) lion to enclosure 5

(C) tiger to enclosure 4

(D) tiger to enclosure 5

(E) tiger to enclosure 7


22.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 6, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 3, then which of the following must be true?

(A) Exactly five enclosures are used in the move

(B) One animal is transferred exactly twice as many times as the other animal.

(C) All of the transfers of the lion are completed before any transfer of the tiger occurs.

(D) At one point one of the animals is transferred to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.

(E) At one point neither the lion nor the tiger is in enclosure 3, enclosure 5, or enclosure 6.


23.Counselor: Every year a popular newsmagazine publishes a list of United States colleges, ranking them according to an overall numerical score that is a composite of ratings according to several criteria. However, the overall scores generally should not be used by students as the basis for deciding to which colleges to apply.


Which of the following, if true, most helps to justify the counselor's recommendation?

(A) The vast majority of people who purchase the magazine in which the list appears are not college-bound students.

(B) Colleges that are ranked highest in the magazine's list use this fact in advertisements aimed at attracting students.

(C) The rankings seldom change from one year to the next.

(D) The significance that particular criteria have for any two students is likely to differ according to the students' differing needs.

(E) Some college students who are pleased with their schools considered the magazine's rankings before deciding which college to attend.


24. A thorough search of Edgar Allan Poe's correspondence has turned up not a single letter in which he mentions his reputed morphine addiction. On the basis of this evidence it is safe to say that Poe's reputation for having been a morphine addict is undeserved and that reports of his supposed addiction are untrue.


Which of the following is assumed by the argument above?

(A) Reports claiming that Poe was addicted to morphine did not begin to circulate until after his death.

(B) None of the reports of Poe's supposed morphine addiction can be traced to individuals who actually knew Poe.

(C) Poe's income from writing would not have been sufficient to support a morphine addiction.

(D) Poe would have been unable to carry on an extensive correspondence while under the influence of morphine.

(E) Fear of the consequences would not have prevented Poe from indicating in his correspondence that he was addicted to morphine.


25. Adelle: The government's program to reduce the unemployment rate in the province of Carthena by encouraging job creation has failed, since the rate there has not changed appreciably since the program began a year ago.

  Fran: But the unemployment rate in Carthena had been rising for three years before the program began, so the program is helping.


Which of the following, if true, most strongly counters Fran's objection to Adelle's argument?

(A) The government is advised by expert economists, some of whom specialize in employment issues.

(B) The unemployment rate in the province of Carthena has historically been higher than that of the country as a whole.

(C) The current government was elected by a wide margin, because of its promises to reduce the unemployment rate in Carthena.

(D) Around the time the government program began, large numbers of unemployed Carthena residents began leaving the province to look for work elsewhere.

(E) The unemployment rate in Carthena had been relatively stable until shortly before the current government took office.



Time – 35 minutes

20 Questions

1. Nearly one in three subscribers to Financial Forecaster is a millionaire, and over half are in top management. Shouldn’t you subscribe to Financial Forecaster now?

A reader who is neither a millionaire nor in top manage­ment would be most likely to act in accordance with the advertisement’s suggestion if he or she drew which of the following questionable conclusions invited by the advertisement?

(A) Among finance-related periodicals. Financial Forecaster provides the most detailed financial information.

(B) Top managers cannot do their jobs properly without reading Financial Forecaster.

(C) The advertisement is placed where those who will be likely to read it are millionaires.

(D) The subscribers mentioned were helped to become millionaires or join top management by reading Financial Forecaster.

(E) Only those who will in fact become millionaires, or at least top managers, will read the advertisement.


Questions 2-3 are based on the following.

Contrary to the charges made by some of its opponents, the provisions of the new deficit-reduction law for indiscriminate cuts in the federal budget are justified. Opponents should remember that the New Deal pulled this country out of great economic troubles even though some of its programs were later found to be unconstitutional.


2. The author’s method of attacking the charges of certain opponents of the new deficit-reduction law is to

(A) attack the character of the opponents rather than their claim

(B) imply an analogy between the law and some New Deal programs

(C) point out that the opponents’ claims imply a dilemma

(D) show that the opponents’ reasoning leads to an absurd conclusion

(E) show that the New Deal also called for indiscriminate cuts in the federal budget


3. The opponents could effectively defend their position against the author’s strategy by pointing out that

(A) the expertise of those opposing the law is outstanding

(B) the lack of justification for the new law does not imply that those who drew it up were either inept or immoral

(C) the practical application of the new law will not entail indiscriminate budget cuts

(D) economic troubles present at the time of the New Deal were equal in severity to those that have led to the present law

(E) the fact that certain flawed programs or laws have improved the economy does not prove that every such program can do so


4. In Millington, a city of 50,000 people, Mercedes Pedrosa, a realtor, calculated that a family with Millington’s median family income, $28,000 a year, could afford to buy Millington’s median-priced $77,000 house. This calculation was based on an 11.2 percent mortgage interest rate and on the realtor’s assumption that a family could only afford to pay up to 25 percent of its income for housing.

Which of the following corrections of a figure appearing in the passage above, if it were the only correction that needed to be made, would yield a new calculation showing that even incomes below the median family income would enable families in Millington to afford Millington’s median-priced house?

(A) Millington’s total population was 45,000 people.

(B) Millington’s median annual family income was $27,000

(C) Millington’s median-priced house cost $80,000

(D) The rate at which people in Millington had to pay mortgage interest was only 10 percent.

(E) Families in Millington could only afford to pay up to 22 percent of their annual income for housing.


5. Psychological research indicates that college hockey and football players are more quickly moved to hostility and aggression than are college athletes in noncontact sports such as swimming. But the researchers’ conclusion--that contact sports encourage and teach participants to be hostile and aggressive--is untenable. The football and hockey players were probably more hostile and aggressive to start with than the swimmers.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the psychological researchers?

(A) The football and hockey players became more hostile and aggressive during the season and remained so during the off-season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness among the swimmers.

(B) The football and hockey players, but not the swimmers, were aware at the start of the experiment that they were being tested for aggressiveness.

(C) The same psychological research indicated that the football and hockey players had a great respect for cooperation and team play, whereas the swimmers were most concerned with excelling as individual competitors.

(D) The research studies were designed to include no college athletes who participated in both contact and noncontact sports.

(E) Throughout the United States, more incidents of fan violence occur at baseball games than occur at hockey or football games.


6.Ross: The profitability of Company X, restored to private ownership five years ago, is clear evidence that businesses will always fare better under private than under public ownership.

Julia: Wrong. A close look at the records shows that X has been profitable since the appointment of a first-class manager, which happened while X was still in the pubic sector.

Which of the following best describes the weak point in Ross’s claim on which Julia’s response focuses?

(A) The evidence Ross cites comes from only a single observed case, that of Company X.

(B) The profitability of Company X might be only temporary.

(C) Ross’s statement leaves open the possibility that the cause he cites came after the effect he attributes to it.

(D) No mention is made of companies that are partly government owned and partly privately owned.

(E) No exact figures are given for the current profits of Company X.


7. Stronger patent laws are needed to protect inventions from being pirated. With that protection, manufacturers would be encouraged to invest in the development of new products and technologies. Such investment frequently results in an increase in a manufacturer’s productivity.

Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn from the information above?

(A) Stronger patent laws tend to benefit financial institutions as well as manufacturers.

(B) Increased productivity in manufacturing is likely to be accompanied by the creation of more manufacturing jobs.

(C) Manufacturers will decrease investment in the development of new products and technologies unless there are stronger patent laws.

(D) The weakness of current patent laws has been a cause of economic recession.

(E) Stronger patent laws would stimulate improvements in productivity for many manufacturers.


8. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

At large amusement parks, live shows are used very deliberately to influence crowd movements. Lunchtime performances relieve the pressure on a park’s restaurants. Evening performances have a rather different purpose: to encourage visitors to stay for supper. Behind this surface divergence in immediate purpose there is the unified underlying goal of _ _ _ _ _.

(A) keeping the lines at the various rides short by drawing off part of the crowd

(B) enhancing revenue by attracting people who come only for the live shows and then leave the park

(C) avoiding as far as possible traffic jams caused by visitors entering or leaving the park

(D) encouraging as many people as possible to come to the park in order to eat at the restaurants

(E) utilizing the restaurants at optimal levels for as much of the day as possible


9.James weighs more than Kelly.
Luis weighs more than Mark.
Mark weighs less than Ned.
Kelly and Ned are exactly the same weight.

If the information above is true, which of the following must also be true?

(A) Luis weighs more than Ned.

(B) Luis weighs more than James.

(C) Kelly weighs less than Luis.

(D) James weighs more than Mark

(E) Kelly weighs less than Mark.


Questions 10-11 are based on the following.

Partly because of bad weather, but also partly because some major pepper growers have switched to high-priced cocoa, world production of pepper has been running well below worldwide sales for three years. Pepper is consequently in relatively short supply. The price of pepper has soared in response: it now equals that of cocoa.


10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A) Pepper is a profitable crop only if it is grown on a large scale.

(B) World consumption of pepper has been unusually high for three years.

(C) World production of pepper will return to previous levels once normal weather returns.

(D) Surplus stocks of pepper have been reduced in the past three years.

(E) The profits that the growers of pepper have made in the past three years have been unprecedented.


11. Some observers have concluded that the rise in the price of pepper means that the switch by some growers from pepper to cocoa left those growers no better off than if none of them had switched; this conclusion, however, is unwarranted because it can be inferred to be likely that

(A) those growers could not have foreseen how high the price of pepper would go

(B) the initial cost involved in switching from pepper to cocoa is substantial

(C) supplies of pepper would not be as low as they are if those growers had not switched crops

(D) cocoa crops are as susceptible to being reduced by bad weather as are pepper crops

(E) as more growers turn to growing cocoa, cocoa supplies will increase and the price of cocoa will fall precipitously.


12. Using computer techniques, researchers analyze layers of paint that lie buried beneath the surface layers of old paintings. They claim, for example, that additional mountainous scenery once appeared in Leonardo da Vinci’s Mona Lisa, which was later painted over. Skeptics reply to these claims, however, that X-ray examinations of the Mona Lisa do not show hidden mountains.

Which of the following, if true, would tend most to weaken the force of the skeptics’ objections?

(A) There is no written or anecdotal record that Leonardo da Vinci ever painted over major areas of his Mona Lisa.

(B) Painters of da Vinci’s time commonly created images of mountainous scenery in the backgrounds of portraits like the Mona Lisa.

(C) No one knows for certain what parts of the Mona Lisa may have been painted by da Vinci’s assistants rather than by da Vinci himself.

(D) Infrared photography of the Mona Lisa has revealed no trace of hidden mountainous scenery.

(E) Analysis relying on X-rays only has the capacity to detect lead-based white pigments in layers of paint beneath a painting’s surface layers.


13. While Governor Verdant has been in office, the state’s budget has increased by an average of 6 percent each year. While the previous governor was in office, the state’s budget increased by an average of 11.5 percent each year. Obviously, the austere budgets during Governor Verdant’s term have caused the slowdown in the growth in state spending.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn above?

(A) The rate of inflation in the state averaged 10 percent each year during the previous governor’s term in office and 3 percent each year during Verdant’s term.

(B) Both federal and state income tax rates have been lowered considerably during Verdant’s term in office.

(C) In each year of Verdant’s term in office, the state’s budget has shown some increase in spending over the previous year.

(D) During Verdant’s term in office, the state has either discontinued or begun to charge private citizens for numerous services that the state offered free to citizens during the previous governor’s term.

(E) During the previous governor’s term in office, the state introduced several so-called " austerity" budgets intended to reduce the growth in state spending.


14. Federal agricultural programs aimed at benefiting one group whose livelihood depends on farming often end up harming another such group.

Which of the following statements provides support for the claim above?

Ⅰ. An effort to help feed-grain producers resulted in higher prices for their crops, but the higher prices decreased the profits of livestock producers.

Ⅱ. In order to reduce crop surpluses and increase prices, growers of certain crops were paid to leave a portion of their land idle, but the reduction was not achieved because improvements in efficiency resulted in higher production on the land in use.

Ⅲ.Many farm workers were put out of work when a program meant to raise the price of grain provided grain growers with an incentive to reduce production by giving them surplus grain from government reserves.

(A) Ⅰ, but not Ⅱ and not Ⅲ

(B) Ⅱ, but not Ⅰand not Ⅲ

(C) Ⅰand Ⅲ, but not Ⅱ

(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ, but not Ⅰ

(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱand Ⅲ


15. Technological education is worsening. People between eighteen and twenty-four, who are just emerging from their formal education, are more likely to be technologically illiterate than somewhat older adults. And yet, issues for public referenda will increasingly involve aspects of technology.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?

(A) If all young people are to make informed decisions on public referenda, many of them must learn more about technology.

(B) Thorough studies of technological issues and innovations should be made a required part of the public and private school curriculum.

(C) It should be suggested that prospective voters attend applied science courses in order to acquire a minimal competency in technical matters.

(D) If young people are not to be overly influenced by famous technocrats, they must increase their knowledge of pure science.

(E) On public referenda issues, young people tend to confuse real or probable technologies with impossible ideals.


16. In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed.

If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

(A) If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.

(B) If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than one-half of the vote.

(C) A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.

(D) The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.

(E) The founders of a third party are likely to be a coalition consisting of former leaders of the two major parties.


17. Companies considering new cost-cutting manufacturing processes often compare the projected results of making the investment against the alternative of not making the investment with costs, selling prices, and share of market remaining constant.

Which of the following, assuming that each is a realistic possibility, constitutes the most serious disadvantage for companies of using the method above for evaluating the financial benefit of new manufacturing processes?

(A) The costs of materials required by the new process might not be known with certainty.

(B) In several years interest rates might go down, reducing the interest costs of borrowing money to pay for the investment.

(C) Some cost-cutting processes might require such expensive investments that there would be no net gain for many years, until the investment was paid for by savings in the manufacturing process.

(D) Competitors that do invest in a new process might reduce their selling prices and thus take market share away from companies that do not.

(E) The period of year chosen for averaging out the cost of the investment might be somewhat longer or shorter, thus affecting the result.


18. There are far fewer children available for adoption than there are people who want to adopt. Two million couples are currently waiting to adopt, but in 1982, the last year for which figures exist, there were only some 50,000 adoptions.

Which of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the author’s claim that there are far fewer children available for adoption than there are people who want to adopt?

(A) The number of couples waiting to adopt has increased significantly in the last decade.

(B) The number of adoptions in the current year is greater than the number of adoptions in any preceding year.

(C) The number of adoptions in a year is approximately equal to the number of children available for adoption in that period.

(D) People who seek to adopt children often go through a long process of interviews and investigation by adoption agencies.

(E) People who seek to adopt children generally make very good parents.


Questions 19-20 are based on the following

Archaeologists seeking the location of a legendary siege and destruction of a city are excavating in several possible places, including a middle and a lower layer of a large mound. The bottom of the middle layer contains some pieces of pottery of type 3, known to be from a later period than the time of the destruction of the city, but the lower layer does not.


19. Which of the following hypotheses is best supported by the evidence above?

(A) The lower layer contains the remains of the city where the siege took place.

(B) The legend confuses stories from two different historical periods.

(C) The middle layer does not represent the period of the siege.

(D) The siege lasted for a long time before the city was destroyed.

(E) The pottery of type 3 was imported to the city by traders.


20. The force of the evidence cited above is most seriously weakened if which of the following is true?

(A) Gerbils, small animals long native to the area, dig large burrows into which objects can fall when the burrows collapse.

(B) Pottery of types 1 and 2, found in the lower level, was used in the cities from which, according to the legend, the besieging forces came.

(C) Several pieces of stone from a lower-layer wall have been found incorporated into the remains of a building in the middle layer.

(D) Both the middle and the lower layer show evidence of large-scale destruction of habitations by fire.

(E) Bronze axheads of a type used at the time of the siege were found in the lower level of excavation.


21. A milepost on the towpath read " 21" on the side facing the hiker as she approached it and " 23" on its back. She reasoned that the next milepost forward on the path would indicate that she was halfway between one end of the path and the other. However, the milepost one mile further on read " 20" facing her and " 24" behind.

Which of the following, if true, would explain the discrepancy described above?

(A) The numbers on the next milepost had been reversed.

(B) The numbers on the mileposts indicate kilometers, not miles.

(C) The facing numbers indicate miles to the end of the path, not miles from the beginning.

(D) A milepost was missing between the two the hiker encountered.

(E) The mileposts had originally been put in place for the use of mountain bikers, not for hikers.


22. Airline: Newly developed collision-avoidance systems, although not fully tested to discover potential malfunctions, must be installed immediately in passenger planes. Their mechanical warnings enable pilots to avoid crashes.
Pilots: Pilots will not fly in planes with collision-avoidance systems that are not fully tested. Malfunctioning systems could mislead pilots, causing crashes.
The pilots’ objection is most strengthened if which of the following is true?

(A) It is always possible for mechanical devices to malfunction.

(B) Jet engines, although not fully tested when first put into use, have achieved exemplary performance and safety records.

(C) Although collision-avoidance systems will enable pilots to avoid some crashes, the likely malfunctions of the not-fully-tested systems will cause even more crashes.

(D) Many airline collisions are caused in part by the exhaustion of overworked pilots.

(E) Collision-avoidance systems, at this stage of development, appear to have worked better in passenger planes than in cargo planes during experimental flights made over a six-month period.


23. Guitar strings often go " dead" --become less responsive and bright in tone--after a few weeks of intense use. A researcher whose son is a classical guitarist hypothesized that dirt and oil, rather than changes in the material properties of the string, were responsible.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to yield significant information that would help to evaluate the researcher’s hypothesis?

(A) Determining if a metal alloy is used to make the strings used by classical guitarists

(B) Determining whether classical guitarists make their strings go dead faster than do folk guitarists

(C) Determining whether identical lengths of string, of the same gauge, go dead at different rates when strung on various brands of guitars.

(D) Determining whether a dead string and a new string produce different qualities of sound

(E) Determining whether smearing various substances on new guitar strings causes them to go dead


24. Most consumers do not get much use out of the sports equipment they purchase. For example, seventeen percent of the adults in the United States own jogging shoes, but only forty-five percent of the owners jog more than once a year, and only seventeen percent jog more than once a week.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the claim that most consumers get little use out of the sports equipment they purchase?

(A) Joggers are most susceptible to sports injuries during the first six months in which they jog.

(B) Joggers often exaggerate the frequency with which they jog in surveys designed to elicit such information.

(C) Many consumers purchase jogging shoes for use in activities other than jogging.

(D) Consumers who take up jogging often purchase an athletic shoe that can be used in other sports.

(E) Joggers who jog more than once a week are often active participants in other sports as well.


25. Two decades after the Emerald River Dam was built, none of the eight fish species native to the Emerald River was still reproducing adequately in the river below the dam. Since the dam reduced the annual range of water temperature in the river below the dam from 50 degrees to 6 degrees, scientists have hypothesized that sharply rising water temperatures must be involved in signaling the native species to begin the reproductive cycle.

Which of  the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the scientists’ hypothesis?

(A) The native fish species were still able to reproduce only in side streams of the river below the dam where the annual temperature range remains approximately 50 degrees.

(B) Before the dam was built, the Emerald River annually overflowed its banks, creating backwaters that were critical breeding areas for the native species of fish.

(C) The lowest recorded temperature of the Emerald River before the dam was built was 34 degrees, whereas the lowest recorded temperature of the river after the dam was built has been 43 degrees.

(D) Nonnative species of fish, introduced into the Emerald River after the dam was built, have begun competing with the declining native fish species for food and space.

(E) Five of the fish species native to the Emerald River are not native to any other river in North America.




Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-8

  Recent years have brought minority-owned

businesses in the United States unprecedented

opportunities-as well as new and significant risks.

Civil rights activists have long argued that one of

(5)  the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, and

other minority groups have difficulty establishing

themselves in business is that they lack access to

the sizable orders and subcontracts that are gener-

ated by large companies. Now Congress, in appar-

(10) ent agreement, has required by law that businesses

awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000

do their best to find minority subcontractors and

record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the

government. Indeed, some federal and local agen-

(15) cies have gone so far as to set specific percentage

goals for apportioning parts of public works con-

tracts to minority enterprises.

    Corporate response appears to have been sub-

stantial. According to figures collected in 1977,

(20) the total of corporate contracts with minority busi-

nesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. lbillion

in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts

with minority businesses for the early 1980’s is

estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no

(25) letup anticipated in the next decade.

  Promising as it is for minority businesses, this

increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.

First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and

overextending themselves financially, since most

(30) are small concerns and, unlike large businesses,

they often need to make substantial investments in

new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order

to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-

after, their subcontracts are for some reason

(35) reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling

fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing

can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get

requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids.

Both consume valuable time and resources, and a

(40)  small company’s efforts must soon result in

orders, or both the morale and the financial health

of the business will suffer.

A second risk is that White-owned companies

may seek to cash in on the increasing apportion-

(45)    ments through formation of joint ventures with

minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many

instances there are legitimate reasons for joint

ventures; clearly, White and minority enterprises

can team up to acquire business that neither could

(50)  acquire alone. But civil rights groups and minority

business owners have complained to Congress about

minorities being set up as " fronts" with White back-

ing, rather than being accepted as full partners in

legitimate joint ventures.

(55)  Third, a minority enterprise that secures the

business of one large corporate customer often run

the danger of becoming--and remaining--dependent.

Even in the best of circumstances, fierce compe-

tition from larger, more established companies

(60)    makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden

their customer bases: when such firms have nearly

guaranteed orders from a single corporate bene-

factor, they may truly have to struggle against

complacency arising from their current success


1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

  (A) present a commonplace idea and its inaccuracies

  (B) describe a situation and its potential drawbacks

  (C) propose a temporary solution to a problem

  (D) analyze a frequent source of disagreement

  (E) explore the implications of a finding


2. The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following questions?

  (A) What federal agencies have set percentage goals for the use of minority-owned businesses in public works contracts?

  (B) To which government agencies must businesses awarded federal contracts report their efforts to find minority subcontractors?

  (C) How widespread is the use of minority-owned concerns as " fronts" by White backers seeking to obtain subcontracts?

  (D) How many more minority-owned businesses were there in 1977 than in 1972?

  (E) What is one set of conditions under which a small business might find itself financially overextended?


3. According to the passage, civil rights activists maintain that one disadvantage under which minority- owned businesses have traditionally had to labor is that they have

  (A) been especially vulnerable to governmental mismanagement of the economy

  (B) been denied bank loans at rates comparable to those afforded larger competitors

  (C) not had sufficient opportunity to secure business created by large corporations

  (D) not been able to advertise in those media that reach large numbers of potential customers

  (E) not had adequate representation in the centers of government power


4. The passage suggests that the failure of a large business to have its bids for subcontracts result quickly in orders might cause it to

  (A) experience frustration but not serious financial harm

  (B) face potentially crippling fixed expenses

  (C) have to record its efforts on forms filed with the government

  (D) increase its spending with minority subcontractors

  (E) revise its procedure for making bids for federal  contracts and subcontracts


5. The author implies that a minority-owned concern that does the greater part of its business with one large corporate customer should

  (A) avoid competition with larger, more established concerns by not expanding

  (B) concentrate on securing even more business from that corporation 

  (C) try to expand its customer base to avoid becoming dependent on the corporation

  (D) pass on some of the work to be done for the corporation to other minority-owned concerns

  (E) use its influence with the corporation to promote subcontracting with other minority concerns


6. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared with the requirements of law, the percentage goals set by " some federal and local agencies " (lines 14-15) are

  (A) more popular with large corporations

  (B) more specific

  (C) less controversial

  (D) less expensive to enforce

  (E) easier to comply with


7. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s assertion that, in the 1970’s, corporate response to federal requirements (lines 18-19) was substantial

  (A) Corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses totaled $2 billion in 1979.

  (B) Between 1970 and 1972, corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses declined by 25 percent.

  (C) The figures collected in 1977 underrepresented the extent of corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses.

  (D) The estimate of corporate spending with minority-owned businesses in 1980 is approximately $10 million too high.

  (E) The $1.1 billion represented the same percentage of total corporate spending in 1977 as did $77 million in 1972.


8. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about corporate response to working with minority subcontractors?

  (A) Annoyed by the proliferation of " front" organizations, corporations are likely to reduce their efforts to work with minority-owned subcontractors in the near future.

  (B) Although corporations showed considerable interest in working with minority businesses in the 1970’s, their aversion to government paperwork made them reluctant to pursue many government contracts.
  (C) The significant response of corporations in the 1970’s is likely to be sustained and conceivably be increased throughout the 1980’s.

  (D) Although corporations are eager to cooperate with minority-owned businesses, a shortage of capital in the 1970’s made substantial response impossible.

  (E) The enormous corporate response has all but eliminated the dangers of overexpansion that used to plague small minority-owned businesses.


Questions 9-17


Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal

idea of the economic market when he said that

the free enterprise system is the most efficient

economic system. Maximum freedom means

(5) maximum productiveness; our " openness" is to

be the measure of our stability. Fascination with

this ideal has made Americans defy the " Old

World" categories of settled possessiveness versus

unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention

(10) versus the cupidity of seizure, a " status quo"

defended or attacked. The United States, it was

believed, had no status quo ante. Our only " sta-

tion" was the turning of a stationary wheel, spin-

ning faster and faster. We did not base our

(15) system on property but opportunity---which

meant we based it not on stability but on mobil-

ity. The more things changed, that is, the more

rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would

be. The conventional picture of class politics is

(20) composed of the Haves, who want a stability to

keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who

want a touch of instability and change in which

to scramble for the things they have not. But

Americans imagined a condition in which spec-

(25) ulators, self-makers, runners are always using the

 new opportunities given by our land. These eco-

nomic leaders (front-runners) would thus he

mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were

considered the ones who wanted stability, a

(30) strong referee to give them some position in the

race, a regulative hand to calm manic specula-

tion; an authority that can call things to a halt,

begin things again from compensatorily stag-

gered " starting lines."

(35)" Reform" in America has been sterile because

it can imagine no change except through the

extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclu-

sion of competitors, " a piece of the action," as it

were, for the disenfranchised. There is no

(40) attempt to call off the race. Since our only sta-

bility is change, America seems not to honor the

quiet work that achieves social interdependence

and stability. There is, in our legends, no hero-

ism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work

(45) force of the people who actually make the system work.

There is no pride in being an employee

(Wilson asked for a return to the time when

everyone was an employer). There has been no

boasting about our social workers---they are

(50) merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportu-

nity denied or not taken, of things to be elimi-

nated. We have no pride in our growing

interdependence, in the fact that our system can

serve others, that we are able to help those in

(55) need; empty boasts from the past make us

ashamed of our present achievements, make us

try to forget or deny them, move away from

them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland

race we must all run, all trying to win, none

(60) winning in the end (for there is no end).


9. The primary purpose of the passage is to

  (A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology

  (B) contrast " Old World" and " New World" economic ideologies

  (C) challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders

  (D) champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected

  (E) suggest a substitute for the traditional