Time – 35 minutes
The majority of successful senior managers do not
closely follow the classical rational model of first clari-
fying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,
estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision,
(5) and only then taking action to implement the decision.
Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed " intu-
ition" to mangage a network of interrelated problems
that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
(10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the
process to thinking.
Generations of writers on management have recog-
nized that some practicing managers rely heavily on
intuition. In general, however, such writers display a
(15) poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the oppo-
site of rationality: others view it as an excuse for ca-
Isenberg’s recent research on the cognitive processes
of senior managers reveals that managers’ intuition is
(20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition
in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense
when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intu-
ition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based
(25) on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experi-
ence that build skills. A third function of intuition is to
synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an inte-
grated picture, often in an " Aha!" experience. Fourth,
some managers use intuition as a check on the results
(30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are
familiar with the formal decision analysis models and
tools, and those who use such systematic methods for
reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions
suggested by these methods which run counter to their
(35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers
can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move
rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this
way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive
process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns.
(40) One of the implications of the intuitive style of execu-
tive management is that " thinking" is inseparable from
acting. Since managers often " know" what is right
before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently
act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied
(45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers
develop thoughts about their companies and organiza-
tions not by analyzing a problematic situation and then
acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage-
(50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often insti-
gate a course of action simply to learn more about an
issue. They then use the results of the action to develop
a more complete understanding of the issue. One impli-
cation of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often
(55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing
1. According to the passage, senior managers use intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem
2. The passage suggests which of the following about the " writers on management" mentioned in line 12?
(A) They have criticized managers for not following the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on what managers say rather than on what managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in managerial practice.
3. Which of the following best exemplifies " an ‘Aha!’ experience" (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is unpredictable to discover whether the action changes the problem at hand.
(B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to the problem at hand.
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of tactics to implement in order to deal with the contingencies suggested by a problem.
4. According to the passage, the classical model of decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the decision
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of different solutions to a problem
5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most probably be one major difference in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal decision analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering; manager X does not.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that " thinking/acting cycles" (line 45 ) in managerial practice would be likely to result in which of the following?
I. A manager analyzes a network of problems and then acts on the basis of that analysis.
II. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the effects of action.
III. A manager takes action without being able to articulate reasons for that particular action.
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
7. The passage provides support for which of the following statements?
(A) Managers who rely on intuition are more successful than those who rely on formal decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(C) Managers’ intuition works contrary to their rational and analytical skills
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical experience more efficiently.
8. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A) An assertion is made and a specific supporting example is given.
(B) A conventional model is dismissed and an alternative introduced.
(C) The results of recent research are introduced and summarized
(D) Two opposing points of view are presented and evaluated.
(E) A widely accepted definition is presented and qualified.
Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they
separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts
at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop
as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
(5) cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense
that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation
was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used
(10) by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
A debate arose over what exactly was happening.
Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they-
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what
(15) are the " morphogenetic determinants" that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved
because no one was able to ask the crucial questions
in a form in which they could be pursued productively.
Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
(20) opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate.
Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in
early development. They have been able o show that,
in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg
(25) is fertilized.
Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found
that an unfertilized egg contains substances that func-
tion as morphogenetic determinants. They are located
in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the
(30) cell’s protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the
unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized,
the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the
(35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different
from the start and so can be qualitatively different in
their own gene activity.
The substances that Gross studied are maternal
(40) messenger RNA’s --products of certain of the maternal
genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety
of organisms have found that these particular RNA’s
direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class
of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the
(45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of
DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resem-
bles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA
segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the
intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded
(50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which
they are located.
9. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of audience?
(A) State legislators deciding about funding levels for a state-funded biological laboratory
(B) Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
(C) Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the college that Paul Gross attended
(D) Marine biologists studying the processes that give rise to new species
(E) Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular biology course
10. It can be inferred from the passage that the morphogenetic determinants present in the early embryo are
(A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
(B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not developing normally
(C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly committed to their final function
(D) identical to those that were already present in the unfertilized egg
(E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the development of a single individual
11. The main topic of the passage is
(A) the early development of embryos of lower marine organisms
(B) the main contribution of modern embryology to molecular biology
(C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older theories of embryonic development
(D) cell determination as an issue in the study of embryonic development
(E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over the value of molecular biology
12. According to the passage, when biologists believed that the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they made which of the following mistakes?
(A) They did not attempt to replicate the original experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
(B) They did not realize that there was a connection between the issue of cell determination and the outcome of the separation experiment.
(C) They assumed that the results of experiments on embryos did not depend on the particular animal species used for such experiments.
(D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the separation experiment at an early stage in the embryo’s life.
(E) They assumed that different ways of separating an embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far as the fate of the two parts was concerned.
13. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes place
(A) in the cytoplasm
(B) in the maternal genes
(C) throughout the protoplasm
(D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
(E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus
14. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
(A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal messenger RNA’s
(B) Sythesis of proteins called histones
(C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
(D) Determination of the egg cell’s potential for division
(E) Generation of all of a cell’s morphogenetic determinants
15. According to the passage, the morphogenetic determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are which of the following?
(A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
(C) Maternal messenger RNA’s
(E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA
16. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a role in determining whether an embryo separated into two parts will two parts will develop as two normal embryos?
I. The stage in the embryo’s life at which the separation occurs
II. The instrument with which the separations is accomplished
III. The plane in which the cut is made that separates the embryo
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
17. Which of the following circumstances is most comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in trying to resolve the debate about cell determination (lines 12-18)?
(A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes to use original source materials that are written in an unfamiliar foreign language
(B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a proof of a theorem for publication detects a reasoning error in the proof
(C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to design equipment to function in an environment in which it cannot first be tested
(D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a theory of language acquisition when knowledge of the structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
(E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the funds available to it are sufficient to support one of two equally deserving scientific projects but not both
In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, over
ten percent to the Black population of the United States
left the South, where the preponderance of the Black
population had been located, and migrated to northern
(5) states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed,
but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in
what has come to be called the Great Migration came
from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent
(10) factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following
the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and
increased demand in the North for labor following
the cessation of European immigration caused by the
outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assump-
(15) tion has led to the conclusion that the migrants’ subse-
quent lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to
rural background, a background that implies unfamil-
iarity with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.
But the question of who actually left the South has
(20) never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous
investigations document an exodus from rural southern
areas to southern cities prior to the Great Migration.
no one has considered whether the same migrants then
moved on to northern cities. In 1910 over 600,000
(25) Black workers, or ten percent of the Black work force,
reported themselves to be engaged in " manufacturing
and mechanical pursuits," the federal census category
roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The
Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely
(30) of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising
to argue that an employed population could be enticed
to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions
then prevalent in the South.
About thirty-five percent of the urban Black popu-
(35) lation in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some
were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths.
masons, carpenters-which had had a monopoly of
certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed
out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence,
(40) The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urban-
ized, worked in newly developed industries---tobacco.
lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads.
Wages in the South, however, were low, and Black
workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the
(45)Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled
workers in the North than they could as artisans in the
South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban Black
workers faced competition from the continuing influx
of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven
(50) to undercut the wages formerly paid for industrial jobs.
Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous
to a group that was already urbanized and steadily
employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subse-
quent economic problems in the North to their rural
background comes into question.
18. The author indicates explicitly that which of the following records has been a source of information in her investigation?
(A) United States Immigration Service reports from 1914 to 1930
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms between 1910 and 1930
(C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898 and 1910
(D) The federal census of 1910
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in southern newspapers after 1910
19. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the following as a possible objection to her argument?
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually migrated during the Great Migration.
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great Migration migrants has not been adequately traced.
(C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs would have reason to move to another area of the country.
(D) It is not true that the term " manufacturing and mechanical pursuits" actually encompasses the entire industrial sector.
(E) Of the Black workers living in southern cities, only those in a small number of trades were threatened by obsolescence.
20. According to the passage, which of the following is true of wages in southern cities in 1910?
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result of increased competition.
(B) They had begun t to rise so that southern industry could attract rural workers.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but decreased for unskilled workers.
(D) They had increased in large southern cities but decreased in small southern cities.
(E) They had increased in newly developed industries but decreased in the older trades.
21. The author cites each of the following as possible influences in a Black worker’s decision to migrate north in the Great Migration EXCEPT
(A) wage levels in northern cities
(B) labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
(D) voting rights in northern states
(E) the Black press
22. It can be inferred from the passage that the " easy conclusion" mentioned in line 53 is based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) People who migrate from rural areas to large cities usually do so for economic reasons.
(B) Most people who leave rural areas to take jobs in cities return to rural areas as soon as it is financially possible for them to do so.
(C) People with rural backgrounds are less likely to succeed economically in cities than are those with urban backgrounds.
(D) Most people who were once skilled workers are not willing to work as unskilled workers.
(E) People who migrate from their birthplaces to other regions of country seldom undertake a second migration.
23. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of information
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new attention
24. According to information in the passage, which of the following is a correct sequence of groups of workers, from highest paid to lowest paid, in the period between 1910 and 1930?
(A) Artisans in the North; artisans in the South; unskilled workers in the North; unskilled workers in the South
(B) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled workers in the North; unskilled workers in the South
(C) Artisans in the North; unskilled workers in the North; artisans in the South
(D) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled urban workers in the North; unskilled rural workers in the South
(E) Artisans in the North and South, unskilled rural workers in the North and South; unskilled urban workers in the North and South
25. The material in the passage would be most relevant to a long discussion of which of the following topics?
(A) The reasons for the subsequent economic difficulties of those who participated in the Great Migration
(B) The effect of migration on the regional economies of the United States following the First World War
(C) The transition from a rural to an urban existence for those who migrated in the Great Migration
(D) The transformation of the agricultural South following the boll weevil infestation
(E) The disappearance of the artisan class in the United States as a consequence of mechanization in the early twentieth century
Time – 35 minutes
A museum will display seven statues--P, Q, R, S, T, U, and W--in two of its
galleries, gallery 1 and gallery 2. Exactly four of the statues will be
displayed in gallery 1 and exactly three of the statues will be displayed in
gallery 2. The statues will be displayed according to the following conditions:
U cannot be displayed in a gallery with W
Neither S nor T can be displayed in a gallery with R.
1.If U is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.
(C) S is displayed in gallery 1.
(D) T is displayed in gallery 2.
(E) W is displayed in gallery 1.
2.If S is displayed in gallery 2, the other two statues displayed in gallery 2 can be
(A) P and Q
(B) P and T
(C) Q and T
(D) T and W
(E) U and W
3.If P is displayed in gallery 1 and W is displayed in gallery 2, then the display in gallery 1 can include any of the following pairs of statues EXCEPT
(A) Q and R
(B) Q and T
(C) Q and U
(D) R and U
(E) S and T
4.If P and Q are displayed in gallery 1, which of the following is a statue that must also be displayed in gallery 1?
5.If S is displayed in gallery 1, which of the following must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) Q is displayed in gallery 1.
(C) R and U are displayed in the same gallery as each other.
(D) P and Q are not displayed in the same gallery as each other.
(E) Q and R are not displayed in the same gallery as each other.
6.If T is displayed in gallery 2, which of the following is a pair of statues that CANNOT be displayed in the same gallery as each other?
(A) P and S
(B) Q and R
(C) Q and W
(D) R and U
(E) T and W
7.If Q is displayed in the same gallery as S. Which of the following must be true?
(A) P is displayed in gallery 1.
(B) R is displayed in gallery 2.
(C) Q and S are displayed in gallery 2.
(D) P is displayed in the same gallery as W.
(E) R is displayed in the same gallery as U.
8 Drug manufacturer: Although our company requires that patients who use our new drug also purchase from us nonreusable kits for weekly blood testing, the expense of those kits is an entirely necessary one: weekly blood testing must be done to monitor the drug's potential side effects, which can be very dangerous.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the manufacturer's argument?
(A) The expense of purchasing the blood-test kits has not prevented any patients from obtaining them or the drug.
(B) Medical laboratories can perform the blood testing at a lower cost to patients or their insurers than the price the manufacturer charges for the kits.
(C) A one-year supply of the drug and the weekly blood-test kits can cost patients or their insurers over $10,000.
(D) Most government and other health insurance programs will not reimburse patients for the full cost of both the drug and the blood-test kits.
(E) Patients who suffer one or more of the dangerous side effects of the drug can incur heavy expenses for the treatment of those side effects.
9 Virginia and her brother William disagree over when their father was born: Virginia claims it was in 1935 and William claims it was in 1933. The hospital where their father was born has no records for 1933 but has complete records for 1935--records that do not include a birth record for their father. Therefore, he must have been born in 1933.
The argument depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Either Virginia's claim or William's claim is correct.
(B) The records of the hospital where their father was born date back to 1933.
(C) Virginia and William know the day and the month of their father's birth.
(D) There are urgent practical reasons why Virginia and William must know the date of their father's birth.
(E) None of their other relatives knows the year in which Virginia and William's father was born.
10. RESULTS OF TWO SURVEYS OF OPINIONS REGARDINGTHE EFFECTS OF SCIENCE OF HUMAN SOCIETY
Responses August 1991 August 1992
Mostly beneficial 25% 81%
Equally harmful 37% 9%
Mostly harmful 20% 7%
No opinion 18% 3%
Which of the following, if true, contributes most to explaining the shift in opinions about the effects of science on human society?
(A) The surveys questioned people who regularly watch prime-time television, and an innovative weekly prime-time television series called " Wonders of Science" had been steadily winning viewers since its widely seen premiere in January 1992.
(B) The surveys questioned college-educated adults, and a report called " The State of the Nation's Schools," published in June 1992, noted an increase in students’ interest in science courses since 1982.
(C) The surveys were conducted in a suburban shopping area near a company that ceased operation in April 1992 as a result of lawsuits arising from unexpected toxic effects of the company's products.
(D) Both survey forms were mailed to equally large samples of the population; after returning the 1991 survey forms, respondents were sent discount coupons for food products, and after returning the 1992 survey forms, respondents were sent a pamphlet on recycling.
(E) The surveys questioned first-year college students across the country, and the people who did the questioning were all research scientists.
A science reporter will make a trip to visit exactly six archaeological
sites--Quin, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Vara, and Xilat. The reporter must visit the sites
one at a time in accordance with the following conditions:
The reporter visits each site exactly once.
The reporter's trip begins at Quin or else at Xilat.
The reporter's trip ends at Vara or else at Xilat.
The reporter visits Vara immediately after visiting Sud.
The reporter visits Sud at some time after visiting Ram.
11.Which of the following is a list of the sites in an order in which the reporter can visit them, from the first site visited to the last site visited?
(A) Quin, Ram, Sud, Vara, Xilat, Tunin
(B) Quin, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Ram, Xilat
(C) Ram, Sud, Vara, Tunin, Quin, Xilat
(D) Xilat, Ram, Sud, Tunin, Quin, Vara
(E) Xilat, Tunin, Ram, Quin, Sud, Vara
12.If Sud is visited immediately after Quin is visited, which of the following can be the second site visited?
13.If Tunin is visited as late in the trip as possible, which of the following must be the third site visited?
14.If Tunin is visited before Xilat is visited and if exactly one site is visited between the visit to Tunin and the visit to Xilat, which of the following must be true?
(A) Quin is visited second.
(B) Ram is visited third.
(C) Sud is visited fourth.
(D) Vara is visited fifth.
(E) Xilat is visited sixth.
15.If Xilat is visited immediately after Ram is visited. Which of the following must be true?
(A) Quin is visited at some time after Tunin is visited.
(B) Ram is visited at some time after Quin is visited.
(C) Tunin is visited at some time after Ram is visited.
(D) Tunin is visited at some time after Sud is visited.
(E) Xilat is visited at some time after Sud is visited.
16.If Ram is the fourth site visited, which of the following must be true?
(A) Quin is the first site visited.
(B) Tunin is the second site visited.
(C) Tunin is the third site visited.
(D) Vara is the sixth site visited.
(E) Xilat is the sixth site visited.
17.Which of the following can be true?
(A) Quin is the fifth site visited
(B) Ram is the fifth site visited.
(C) Sud is the second site visited.
(D) Xilat is the second site visited.
(E) Xilat is the fifth site visited.
Eight representatives--Gold, Herrera, Jones, Karami, Lowell, Nakamura, Orson, and Porter--will be scheduled to present information at four project meetings: W, X, Y and Z. Each representative will be scheduled for exactly one meeting, and at least one representative will be scheduled for each meeting. The meetings will be held one at a time, one after another. The order of the meetings and the schedule of representatives for the meetings must meet the following conditions:
Meeting W is held first, and exactly three representatives are scheduled for it.
Meeting X is held at some time before meeting Y.
Gold and Herrera are both scheduled for meeting X.
Karami is scheduled for meeting Z.
Orson is scheduled for the same meeting as Porter.
18.If the meetings are scheduled in the order W, X, Y, Z, which of the following can be the schedule of representatives for the meetings?
W X Y Z
(A) Gold lowell Orson Karami
Herrera Nakamura Porter Jones
(B) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura
(C) Jones Gold Nakamura Orson
Loweil Herrera Porter Karami
(D) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura
(E) Jones Gold Orson Karami
Lowell Herrera Porter Nakamura
19.If Orson is scheduled for meeting Y, which of the following can be true?
(A) Gold is scheduled for the same meeting as Jones.
(B) Herrera is scheduled for the same meeting as Lowell.
(C) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.
(D) Karami is scheduled for the third meeting.
(E) Lowell is scheduled for the fourth meeting.
20.If Gold and Jones are both scheduled for the third meeting, which of the following must be true?
(A) Herrera is scheduled for the first meeting.
(B) Lowell is scheduled for the first meeting.
(C) Porter is scheduled for the first meeting.
(D) Karami is scheduled for the same meeting as Nakamura.
(E) Lowell is scheduled for the same meeting as Nakamura.
21.If Nakamura is scheduled for the third meeting and Karami is scheduled for the fourth meeting, which of the following must be true?
(A) Herrera is scheduled for the second meeting.
(B) Jones is scheduled for the second meeting.
(C) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Y.
(D) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Z.
(E) Porter is scheduled for meeting Y.
22.If no other representative is scheduled for the meeting for which Jones is scheduled, any of the following can be true EXCEPT:
(A) Jones is scheduled for the third meeting.
(B) Lowell is scheduled for the second meeting.
(C) Nakamura is schedule for the fourth meeting.
(D) Lowell is scheduled for meeting Z.
(E) Nakamura is scheduled for meeting Y.
23 The town of San Leonardo has recently enacted a law banning smoking in all restaurants within town limits. Since many smokers who normally dine in San Leonardo's restaurants will not want to refrain from smoking during their meals, San Leonardo's restaurants will undoubtedly lose many patrons and considerable income.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to strengthen the argument above?
(A) Most residents of San Leonardo who eat in restaurants are not smokers.
(B) Most smokers who dine in the company of non-smokers are willing to refrain from smoking during their meals.
(C) If the law banning smoking in restaurants had not been enacted, it is likely that a more stringent law banning smoking in all public places in San Leonardo would have been enacted instead.
(D) Prior to the enactment of the law banning smoking in San Leonardo's restaurant, the town had a law that required most restaurants to have nonsmoking sections.
(E) None of the other communities adjacent to San Leonardo, which have restaurants comparable to those of San Leonardo, has enacted and enforces any antismoking legislation.
24. Children whose biological parents both have Tic Syndrome Z (TSZ), which
is characterized by the involuntary contraction of certain muscles, are about
four times more likely to develop such contractions than are children whose
biological parents do not have TSZ, It is likely, therefore, that predisposition
to TSZ is an inherited trait.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?
(A) Children whose parents have TSZ are more likely to develop TSZ if they are under unusual stress at school or at home than if they are not under such stress.
(B) Children whose biological parents do not have TSZ are more likely to develop TSZ if they are raised by adoptive parents with TSZ than if they are raised by their biological parents.
(C) Children whose biological parents have TSZ are as likely to develop TSZ if they are raised by adoptive parents who do not have TSZ as if they are raised by their biological parents.
(D) Children whose biological parents have TSZ and who develop TSZ usually avoid developing a severe form of the syndrome if they seek treatment for TSZ shortly after developing the first signs of it.
(E) Children with TSZ whose biological parents do not have TSZ are less likely to have the syndrome diagnosed when symptoms first appear than are children with TSZ whose biological parents have TSZ.
25.Playing eighteenth-century music on the instruments of that period
provides valuable information about how the music originally sounded.
Eighteenth-century instruments cannot be played without being restored, however,
and restoring such an instrument destroys all of the information that
researchers could obtain from it about eighteenth-century instrument-making
If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true on the basis of them?
(A) Eighteenth-century instruments cannot be used to provide information about the original techniques used in playing such instruments if they have been restored.
(B) Eighteenth-century instruments that have been restored can provide information only about how eighteenth-century music originally sounded
(C) Eighteenth-century instruments are the only source of information about the instrument-making techniques of that period.
(D) An eighteenth-century instrument that has not been restored can provide more information than can one that has been restored.
(E) An eighteenth-century instrument cannot serve as a source of new information about eighteenth-century instrument-making techniques once it can be played
Time – 35 minutes
In contrast to traditional analyses of minority busi-
ness, the sociological analysis contends that minority
business ownership is a group-level phenomenon, in that
it is largely dependent upon social-group resources for
(5) its development. Specifically, this analysis indicates that
support networks play a critical role in starting and
maintaining minority business enterprises by providing
owners with a range of assistance, from the informal
encouragement of family members and friends to
(10) dependable sources of labor and clientele from the
owner’s ethnic group. Such self-help networks, which
encourage and support ethnic minority entrepreneurs,
consist of " primary" institutions, those closest to the
individual in shaping his or her behavior and beliefs.
(15) They are characterized by the face-to-face association
and cooperation of persons united by ties of mutual
concern. They form an intermediate social level between
the individual and larger " secondary " institutions based
on impersonal relationships. Primary institutions
(20) comprising the support network include kinship, peer,
and neighborhood or community subgroups.
A major function of self-help networks is financial
support. Most scholars agree that minority business
owners have depended primarily on family funds and
(25) ethnic community resources for investment capital .
Personal savings have been accumulated, often through
frugal living habits that require sacrifices by the entire
family and are thus a product of long-term family finan-
cial behavior. Additional loans and gifts from relatives.
(30) forthcoming because of group obligation rather than
narrow investment calculation, have supplemented
personal savings. Individual entrepreneurs do not neces-
sarily rely on their kin because they cannot obtain finan-
cial backing from commercial resources. They may actu-
(35) ally avoid banks because they assume that commercial
institutions either cannot comprehend the special needs
of minority enterprise or charge unreasonably high
Within the larger ethnic community, rotating credit
(40) associations have been used to raise capital. These asso-
ciations are informal clubs of friends and other trusted
members of the ethnic group who make regular contri-
butions to a fund that is given to each contributor in
rotation. One author estimates that 40 percent of New
(45)York Chinatown firms established during 1900-1950
utilized such associations as their initial source of
capital. However, recent immigrants and third or fourth
generations of older groups now employ rotating credit
associations only occasionally to raise investment funds.
(50) Some groups, like Black Americans, found other means
of financial support for their entrepreneurial efforts.The
first Black-operated banks were created in the late nine-
teenth century as depositories for dues collected from
fraternal or lodge groups, which themselves had sprung
(55) from Black churches. Black banks made limited invest-
ments in other Black enterprises. Irish immigrants in
American cities organized many building and loan asso-
ciations to provide capital for home construction and
purchase. They. in turn, provided work for many Irish
(60) home-building contractor firms. Other ethnic and
minority groups followed similar practices in founding
ethnic-directed financial institutions.
1. Based on the information in the passage. it would be LEAST likely for which of the following persons to be part of a self-help network?
(A) The entrepreneur’s childhood friend
(B) The entrepreneur’s aunt
(C) The entrepreneur’s religious leader
(D) The entrepreneur’s neighbor
(E) The entrepreneur’s banker
2. Which of the following illustrates the working of a self-help support network, as such networks are described in the passage?
(A) A public high school offers courses in book-keeping and accounting as part of its open-enrollment adult education program.
(B) The local government in a small city sets up a program that helps teen-agers find summer jobs.
(C) A major commercial bank offers low-interest loans to experienced individuals who hope to establish their own businesses.
(D) A neighborhood-based fraternal organization develops a program of on-the-job training for its members and their friends.
(E) A community college offers country residents training programs that can lead to certification in a variety of technical trades.
3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about rotating credit associations?
(A) They were developed exclusively by Chinese immigrants.
(B) They accounted for a significant portion of the investment capital used by Chinese immigrants in New York in the early twentieth century.
(C) Third-generation members of an immigrant group who started businesses in the 1920’s would have been unlikely to rely on them.
(D) They were frequently joint endeavors by members of two or three different ethnic groups.
(E) Recent immigrants still frequently turn to rotating credit associations instead of banks for investment capital.
4. The passage best supports which of the following statements?
(A) A minority entrepreneur who had no assistance from family members would not be able to start a business.
(B) Self-help networks have been effective in helping entrepreneurs primarily in the last 50 years.
(C) Minority groups have developed a range of alternatives to standard financing of business ventures.
(D) The financial institutions founded by various ethnic groups owe their success to their unique formal organization.
(E) Successful minority-owned businesses succeed primarily because of the personal strengths of their founders.
5. Which of the following best describes the organization of the second paragraph?
(A) An argument is delineated, followed by a counterargument.
(B) An assertion is made and several examples are provided to illustrate it.
(C) A situation is described and its historical background is then outlined.
(D) An example of a phenomenon is given and is then used as a basis for general conclusions.
(E) A group of parallel incidents is described and the distinctions among the incidents are then clarified.
6. According to the passage, once a minority-owned business is established, self-help networks contribute which of the following to that business?
(A) Information regarding possible expansion of the business into nearby communities
(B) Encouragement of a business climate that is nearly free of direct competition
(C) Opportunities for the business owner to reinvest profits in other minority-owned businesses
(D) Contact with people who are likely to be customers of the new business
(E) Contact with minority entrepreneurs who are members of other ethnic groups
7. It can be inferred from the passage that traditional analyses of minority business would be LEAST likely to do which of the following?
(A) Examine businesses primarily in their social contexts
(B) Focus on current, rather than historical, examples of business enterprises
(C) Stress common experiences of individual entrepreneurs in starting businesses
(D) Focus on the maintenance of businesses, rather than means of starting them
(E) Focus on the role of individual entrepreneurs in starting a business
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the Irish building and loan associations mentioned in the last paragraph?
(A) They were started by third-or fourth-generation immigrants.
(B) They originated as offshoots of church-related groups.
(C) They frequently helped Irish entrepreneurs to finance business not connected with construction.
(D) They contributed to the employment of many Irish construction workers.
(E) They provided assistance for construction businesses owned by members of other ethnic groups.
Species interdependence in nature confers many
benefits on the species involved, but it can also become a
point of weakness when one species involved in the rela-
tionship is affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering
(5) plant species dependent on insect pollination, as opposed
to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endan-
gered when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted
by the use of pesticides.
In the forests of New Brunswick, for example,
(10) various pesticides have been sprayed in the past 25 years
in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economi-
cally significant pest. Scientists have now investigated
the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of the anti-
budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators.
(15) They studied Matacil’s effects on insect mortality in a
wide variety of wild insect species and on plant fecun-
dity, expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on
an individual plant that actually developed fruit and
bore seeds. They found that the most pronounced
(20) mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred among
the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were
all important pollinators of numerous species of plants
growing beneath the tree canopy of forests. The fecun-
dity of plants in one common indigenous species, the
(25) red-osier dogwood, was significantly reduced in the
sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control
plots where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is
highly dependent on the insect-pollinators most vulner-
able to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar
(30) to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by
large bees, such as bumblebees, showed no significant
decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by
the spraying of Matacil. these results and weight to the
argument that spraying where the pollinators are sensi-
(35) tive to the pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
The question of whether the decrease in plant fecun-
dity caused by the spraying of pesticides actually causes
a decline in the overall population of flowering plant
species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent
(40) solely on seeds for survival or dispersal are obviously
more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegeta-
tive growth and dispersal (by means of shoots or runners)
are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a
(45) species, then decreases in plant fecundity may be of little
consequence. The fecundity effects described here are
likely to have the most profound impact on plant species
with all four of the following characteristics: a short life
span, a narrow geographic range, an incapacity for vege-
(50) tative propagation, and a dependence on a small number
of insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we should give special
attention to the conservation of such plant species since
they lack key factors in their defenses against the envi-
ronmental disruption caused by pesticide use.
9. Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
(A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for some plants, but is generally beneficial to insects involved in pollination.
(B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had deleterious effects on the red-osier dogwood.
(C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain plant species dependent on insects for pollination.
(D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity of a plant species, but probably does not affect its overall population stability.
(E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses against human environmental disruption will probably become extinct.
10. According to the author, a flowering plant species whose fecundity has declined due to pesticide spraying may not experience an overall population decline if the plant species can do which of the following?
(A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
(B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
(C) Survive in harsh climates.
(D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more flowers.
(E) Attract large insects as pollinators
11. The passage suggests that the lack of an observed decline in the fecundity of the creeping dogwood
strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding pesticide use because the
(A) creeping dogwood its a species that does not resemble other forest plants
(B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a broader range of insect species than are most dogwood species
(C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that were not sprayed with pesticide, and so served as a control for the experiment
(D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier dogwood, but its insect pollinators are known to be insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
(E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is similar to that of the red-osier dogwood, but the latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction
12. The passage suggests that which of the following is true of the forest regions in New Brunswick sprayed with most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?
(A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those regions may have decreased to an even greater degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly among the larger species of insects, such as bumblebees.
(C) The number of seeds produced by common plant species in those regions is probably comparable to the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
(D) Many more plant species have become extinct in those regions than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those regions than in the regions where Matacil is sprayed.
13. It can be inferred that which of the following is true of plant fecundity as it is defined in the passage?
(A) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of unpollinated flowers on the plant increases
(B) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of flowers produced by the plant decreases.
(C) A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of flowers produced by the plant increases.
(D) A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies on a small number of insect species for pollination.
(E) A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce quickly by means of vegetative growth as well as by the production of seeds.
14. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following plant species would be LEAST likely to experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the spraying of a pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
(A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect species
(B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few flowers
(C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
(D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of insect species
(E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger insects
15. Which of the following assumptions most probably underlies the author’s tentative recommendation in lines 51-54?
(A) Human activities that result in environmental disruption should be abandoned.
(B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the future.
(C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endangered plant species.
(D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less costly than trying to save an already endangered one.
(E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-chosen species are more cost-effective than are broader-based efforts to improve the environment.
Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early
history of the United States by applying new social
research findings on the experiences of European
migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration becomes the
(5) organizing principle for rewriting the history of prein-
dustrial North America. His approach rests on four
The first of these asserts that residents of early
modern England moved regularly about their coun-
(10) tryside; migrating to the New World was simply a
" natural spillover." Although at first the colonies held
little positive attraction for the English---they would
rather have stayed home--by the eighteenth century
people increasingly migrated to America because they
(15) regarded it as the land of opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn
holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in
America history textbooks, there was never a typical
New World community. For example, the economic and
demographic character of early New England towns
(20) varied considerably.
Bailyn’s third proposition suggests two general
patterns prevailing among the many thousands of
migrants: one group came as indentured servants,
another came to acquire land. Surprisingly, Bailyn
(25) suggests that those who recruited indentured servants
were the driving forces of transatlantic migration. These
colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the social char-
acter of people who came to preindustrial North America.
At first, thousands of unskilled laborers were recruited;
(30) by the 1730’s, however, American employers demanded
Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-
civilized hinterland of the European culture system. He
is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were
(35) part of an Anglo-American empire. But to divide the
empire into English core and colonial periphery, as
Bailyn does, devalues the achievements of colonial
culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high culture in
the colonies never matched that in England. But what
(40) of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university,
and published books? Bailyn might respond that New
England was exceptional. However, the ideas and insti-
tutions developed by New England Puritans had power-
(45) ful effects on North American culture.
Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to
some thousands of indentured servants who migrated
just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experi-
ence with the political development of the United States.
(50) Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might
make such a connection. These indentured servants were
treated as slaves for the period during which they had
sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising
that as soon as they served their time they passed up
(55) good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their
personal independence by acquiring land. Thus, it is in
the west that a peculiarly American political culture
began, among colonists who were suspicious of
authority and intensely antiaristocratic.
16. Which of the following statements about migrants to colonial North America is supported by information in the passage?
(A) A larger percentage of migrants to colonial North America came as indentured servants than as free agents interested in acquiring land.
(B) Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured servants were more successful at making a livelihood than were farmers and artisans.
(C) Migrants to colonial North America were more successful at acquiring their own land during the eighteenth century than during the seven-tenth century.
(D) By the 1730’s, migrants already skilled in a trade were in more demand by American employers than were unskilled laborers.
(E) A significant percentage of migrants who came to the colonies to acquire land were forced to work as field hands for prosperous American farmers.
17. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
(A) give sufficient emphasis to the cultural and political interdependence of the colonies and England
(B) describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic backgrounds preserved their culture in the united States
(C) take advantage of social research on the experiences of colonists who migrated to colonial North America specifically to acquire land
(D) relate the experience of the migrants to the political values that eventually shaped the character of the United States
(E) investigate the lives of Europeans before they came to colonial North America to determine more adequately their motivations for migrating
18. Which of the following best summarizes the author’s evaluation of Bailyn’s fourth proposition?
(A) It is totally implausible.
(B) It is partially correct.
(C) It is highly admirable.
(D) It is controversial though persuasive.
(E) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.
19. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree on which of the following statements about the culture of colonial New England?
(A) High culture in New England never equaled the high culture of England.
(B) The cultural achievements of colonial New England have generally been unrecognized by historians.
(C) The colonists imitated the high culture of England, and did not develop a culture that was uniquely their own.
(D) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by the high culture of New England.
(E) New England communities were able to create laws and build a university, but unable to create anything innovative in the arts.
20. According to the passage, which of the following is true of English migrants to the colonies during the eighteenth century?
(A) Most of them were farmers rather than trades people or artisans.
(B) Most of them came because they were unable to find work in England.
(C) They differed from other English people in that they were willing to travel.
(D) They expected that the colonies would offer them increased opportunity.
(E) They were generally not as educated as the people who remained in England.
21. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) comparing several current interpretations of early American history
(B) suggesting that new social research on migration should lead to revisions in current interpretations of early American history
(C) providing the theoretical framework that is used by most historians in understanding early American history
(D) refuting an argument about early American history that has been proposed by social historians
(E) discussing a reinterpretation of early American history that is based on new social research on migration
22. It can be inferred from the passage that American history textbooks used to assert that
(A) many migrants to colonial North America were not successful financially
(B) more migrants came to America out of religious or political conviction that came in the hope of acquiring land
(C) New England communities were much alike in terms of their economics and demographics
(D) many migrants to colonial North America failed to maintain ties with their European relations
(E) the level of literacy in New England communities was very high
23. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about Bailyn’s work?
(A) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought on North American culture
(B) Bailyn overemphasizes the economic dependence of the colonies on Great Britain.
(C) Bailyn’s description of the colonies as part of an Anglo-American empire is misleading and incorrect.
(D) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific group of migrants to colonial North America.
(E) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants to the New England colonies, and neglects the southern and the western parts of the New World.
Time – 35 minutes
1. Toughened hiring standards have not been the primary cause of the present staffing shortage in public schools. The shortage of teachers is primarily caused by the fact that in recent years teachers have not experienced any improvements in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions.
Which of the following, if true, would most support the claims above?
(A) Many teachers already in the profession would not have been hired under the new hiring standards.
(B) Today more teachers are entering the profession with a higher educational level than in the past.
(C) Some teachers have cited higher standards for hiring as a reason for the current staffing shortage.
(D) Many teachers have cited low pay and lack of professional freedom as reasons for their leaving the profession.
(E) Many prospective teachers have cited the new hiring standards as a reason for not entering the profession.
2. A proposed ordinance requires the installation in new homes of sprinklers automatically triggered by the presence of a fire. However, a home builder argued that because more than ninety percent of residential fires are extinguished by a household member, residential sprinklers would only marginally decrease property damage caused by residential fires.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the home builder’s argument?
(A) Most individuals have no formal training in how to extinguish fires.
(B) Since new homes are only a tiny percentage of available housing in the city, the new ordinance would be extremely narrow in scope.
(C) The installation of smoke detectors in new residences costs significantly less than the installation of sprinklers.
(D) In the city where the ordinance was proposed, the average time required by the fire department to respond to a fire was less than the national average.
(E) The largest proportion of property damage that results from residential fires is caused by fires that start when no household member is present.
3. Even though most universities retain the royalties from faculty members’ inventions, the faculty members retain the royalties from books and articles they write. Therefore, faculty members should retain the royalties from the educational computer software they develop.
The conclusion above would be more reasonably drawn if which of the following were inserted into the argument as an additional premise?
(A) Royalties from inventions are higher than royalties from educational software programs.
(B) Faculty members are more likely to produce educational software programs than inventions.
(C) Inventions bring more prestige to universities than do books and articles.
(D) In the experience of most universities, educational software programs are more marketable than are books and articles.
(E) In terms of the criteria used to award royalties, educational software programs are more nearly comparable to books and articles than to inventions.
4. Increases in the level of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) in the human bloodstream lower bloodstream-cholesterol levels by increasing the body’s capacity to rid itself of excess cholesterol. Levels of HDL in the bloodstream of some individuals are significantly increased by a program of regular exercise and weight reduction.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
(A) Individuals who are underweight do not run any risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
(B) Individuals who do not exercise regularly have a high risk of developing high levels of cholesterol in the bloodstream late in life.
(C) Exercise and weight reduction are the most effective methods of lowering bloodstream cholesterol levels in humans.
(D) A program of regular exercise and weight reduction lowers cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of some individuals.
(E) Only regular exercise is necessary to decrease cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of individuals of average weight.
5. When limitations were in effect on nuclear-arms testing, people tended to save more of their money, but when nuclear-arms testing increased, people tended to spend more of their money. The perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe, therefore, decreases the willingness of people to postpone consumption for the sake of saving money.
The argument above assumes that
(A) the perceived threat of nuclear catastrophe has increased over the years.
(B) most people supported the development of nuclear arms
(C) people’s perception of the threat of nuclear catastrophe depends on the amount of nuclear-arms testing being done
(D) the people who saved the most money when nuclear-arms testing was limited were the ones who supported such limitations
(E) there are more consumer goods available when nuclear-arms testing increases
6. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
People buy prestige when they buy a premium product. They want to be associated with something special. Mass-marketing techniques and price-reduction strategies should not be used because _______.
(A) affluent purchasers currently represent a shrinking portion of the population of all purchasers
(B) continued sales depend directly on the maintenance of an aura of exclusivity
(C) purchasers of premium products are concerned with the quality as well as with the price of the products
(D) expansion of the market niche to include a broader spectrum of consumers will increase profits
(E) manufacturing a premium brand is not necessarily more costly than manufacturing a standard brand of the same product
7. A cost-effective solution to the problem of airport congestion is to provide high-speed ground transportation between major cities lying 200 to 500 miles apart. The successful implementation of this plan would cost far less than expanding existing airports and would also reduce the number of airplanes clogging both airports and airways.
Which of the following, if true, could proponents of the plan above most appropriately cite as a piece of evidence for the soundness of their plan?
(A)An effective high-speed ground-transportation system would require major repairs to many highways and mass-transit improvements.
(B) One-half of all departing flights in the nation’s busiest airport head for a destination in a major city 225 miles away.
(C) The majority of travelers departing from rural airports are flying to destinations in cities over 600 miles away.
(D) Many new airports are being built in areas that are presently served by high-speed ground-transportation systems.
(E) A large proportion of air travelers are vacationers who are taking long-distance flights.
Questions 8-9 are based on the following.
If there is an oil-supply disruption resulting in higher international oil prices, domestic oil prices in open-market countries such as the United States will rise as well, whether such countries import all or none of their oil.
8. If the statement above concerning oil-supply disruptions is true, which of the following policies in an open-market nation is most likely to reduce the long-term economic impact on that nation of sharp and unexpected increases in international oil prices?
(A) Maintaining the quantity of oil imported at constant yearly levels
(B) Increasing the number of oil tankers in its fleet
(C) Suspending diplomatic relations with major oil-producing nations
(D) Decreasing oil consumption through conservation
(E) Decreasing domestic production of oil
9. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the statement above?
(A) Domestic producers of oil in open-market countries are excluded from the international oil market when there is a disruption in the international oil supply.
(B) International oil-supply disruptions have little, if any, effect on the price of domestic oil as long as an open-market country has domestic supplies capable of meeting domestic demand.
(C) The oil market in an open-market country is actually part of the international oil market, even if most of that country’s domestic oil is usually sold to consumers within its borders.
(D) Open-market countries that export little or none of their oil can maintain stable domestic oil prices even when international oil prices rise sharply.
(E) If international oil prices rise, domestic distributors of oil in open-market countries will begin to import more oil than they export.
10. The average normal infant born in the United States weighs between twelve and fourteen pounds at the age of three months. Therefore, if a three-month-old child weighs only ten pounds, its weight gain has been below the United States average.
Which of the following indicates a flaw in the reasoning above?
(A) Weight is only one measure of normal infant development.
(B) Some three-month-old children weigh as much as seventeen pounds.
(C) It is possible for a normal child to weigh ten pounds at birth.
(D) The phrase " below average" does not necessarily mean insufficient.
(E)Average weight gain is not the same as average weight.
11. Red blood cells in which the malarial-fever parasite resides are eliminated from a person’s body after 120 days. Because the parasite cannot travel to a new generation of red blood cells, any fever that develops in a person more than 120 days after that person has moved to a malaria-free region is not due to the malarial parasite.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?
(A) The fever caused by the malarial parasite may resemble the fever caused by flu viruses.
(B) The anopheles mosquito, which is the principal insect carrier of the malarial parasite, has been eradicated in many parts of the world.
(C) Many malarial symptoms other than the fever, which can be suppressed with antimalarial medication, can reappear within 120 days after the medication is discontinued.
(D) In some cases, the parasite that causes malarial fever travels to cells of the spleen, which are less frequently eliminated from a person’s body than are red blood cells.
(E) In any region infested with malaria-carrying mosquitoes, there are individuals who appear to be immune to malaria.
12. Fact 1: Television advertising is becoming less effective: the proportion of brand names promoted on television that viewers of the advertising can recall is slowly decreasing.
Fact 2: Television viewers recall commercials aired first or last in a cluster of consecutive commercials far better than they recall commercials aired somewhere in the middle.
Fact 2 would be most likely to contribute to an explanation of fact 1 if which of the following were also true?
(A) The average television viewer currently recalls fewer than half the brand names promoted in commercials he or she saw.
(B) The total time allotted to the average cluster of consecutive television commercials is decreasing.
(C) The average number of hours per day that people spend watching television is decreasing.
(D) The average number of clusters of consecutive commercials per hour of television is increasing.
(E) The average number of television commercials in a cluster of consecutive commercials is increasing.
13. The number of people diagnosed as having a certain intestinal disease has dropped significantly in a rural county this year, as compared to last year, Health officials attribute this decrease entirely to improved sanitary conditions at water-treatment plants, which made for cleaner water this year and thus reduced the incidence of the disease.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the health officials’ explanation for the lower incidence of the disease?
(A) Many new water-treatment plants have been built in the last five years in the rural county.
(B) Bottled spring water has not been consumed in significantly different quantities by people diagnosed as having the intestinal disease, as compared to people who did not contract the disease.
(C) Because of a new diagnostic technique, many people who until this year would have been diagnosed as having the intestinal disease are now correctly diagnosed as suffering from intestinal ulcers.
(D) Because of medical advances this year, far fewer people who contract the intestinal disease will develop severe cases of the disease.
(E) The water in the rural county was brought up to the sanitary standards of the water in neighboring counties ten years ago.
14. The price the government pays for standard weapons purchased from military contractors is determined by a pricing method called " historical costing." Historical costing allows contractors to protect their profits by adding a percentage increase, based on the current rate of inflation, to the previous year’s contractual price.
Which of the following statements, if true, is the best basis for a criticism of historical costing as an economically sound pricing method for military contracts?
(A) The government might continue to pay for past inefficient use of funds.
(B) The rate of inflation has varied considerably over the past twenty years.
(C) The contractual price will be greatly affected by the cost of materials used for the products.
(D) Many taxpayers question the amount of money the government spends on military contracts.
(E) The pricing method based on historical costing might not encourage the development of innovative weapons.
15. Some who favor putting governmental enterprises into private hands suggest that conservation objectives would in general be better served if private environmental groups were put in charge of operating and financing the national park system, which is now run by the government.
Which of the following, assuming that it is a realistic possibility, argues most strongly against the suggestion above?
(A) Those seeking to abolish all restrictions on exploiting the natural resources of the parks might join the private environmental groups as members and eventually take over their leadership.
(B) Private environmental groups might not always agree on the best ways to achieve conservation objectives.
(C) If they wished to extend the park system, the private environmental groups might have to seek contributions from major donors and the general public.
(D) There might be competition among private environmental groups for control of certain park areas.
(E) Some endangered species, such as the California condor, might die out despite the best efforts of the private environmental groups, even if those groups are not hampered by insufficient resources.
16. A recent spate of launching and operating mishaps with television satellites led to a corresponding surge in claims against companies underwriting satellite insurance. As a result, insurance premiums shot up, making satellites more expensive to launch and operate. This, in turn, has added to the pressure to squeeze more performance out of currently operating satellites.
Which of the following, if true, taken together with the information above, best supports the conclusion that the cost of television satellites will continue to increase?
(A) Since the risk to insurers of satellites is spread over relatively few units, insurance premiums are necessarily very high.
(B) When satellites reach orbit and then fail, the causes of failure are generally impossible to pinpoint with confidence.
(C) The greater the performance demands placed on satellites, the more frequently those satellites break down.
(D) Most satellites are produced in such small numbers that no economies of scale can be realized.
(E) Since many satellites are built by unwieldy international consortia, inefficiencies are inevitable.
17. Tocqueville, a nineteenth-century writer known for his study of democracy in the United States, believed that a government that centralizes power in one individual or institution is dangerous to its citizens. Biographers claim that Tocqueville disliked-centralized government because he blamed Napoleon’s rule for the poverty of his childhood in Normandy.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the biographers’ claim?
(A) Although Napoleon was popularly blamed at the time for the terrible living conditions in Normandy, historians now know that bad harvests were really to blame for the poor economic conditions.
(B) Napoleon was notorious for refusing to share power with any of his political associates.
(C) Tocqueville said he knew that if his father had not suffered ill health, his family would have had a steady income and a comfortable standard of living.
(D) Although Tocqueville asserted that United States political life was democratic, the United States of the nineteenth century allowed political power to be concentrated in a few institutions.
(E) Tocqueville once wrote in a letter that, although his childhood was terribly impoverished, it was not different from the experience of his friends and neighbors in Normandy.
18. Radio interferometry is a technique for studying details of celestial objects that combines signals intercepted by widely spaced radio telescopes. This technique requires ultraprecise timing, exact knowledge of the locations of the telescopes, and sophisticated computer programs. The successful interferometric linking of an Earth-based radio telescope with a radio telescope on an orbiting satellite was therefore a significant technological accomplishment.
Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
(A) Special care was taken in the launching of the satellite so that the calculations of its orbit would be facilitated.
(B) The signals received on the satellite are stronger than those received by a terrestrial telescope.
(C) The resolution of detail achieved by the satellite-Earth interferometer system is inferior to that achieved by exclusively terrestrial systems.
(D) The computer programs required for making use of the signals received by the satellite required a long time for development.
(E) The location of an orbiting satellite relative to locations on Earth can be well enough known for interferometric purposes.
19. Recent estimates predict that between 1982 and 1995 the greatest increase in the number of people employed will be in the category of low-paying service occupations. This category, however, will not increase its share of total employment, whereas the category of high-paying service occupations will increase its share.
If the estimates above are accurate, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
(A) In 1982 more people were working in low-paying service occupations than were working in high-paying service occupations.
(B) In 1995 more people will be working in high-paying service occupations than will be working in low-paying service occupations.
(C) Nonservice occupations will account for the same share of total employment in 1995 as in 1982.
(D) Many of the people who were working in low-paying service occupations in 1982 will be working in high-paying service occupations by 1995.
(E) The rate of growth for low-paying service occupations will be greater than the overall rate of employment growth between 1982 and 1995.
20. For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any negotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators. Strikes should be outlawed only for categories of public-sector workers for whose services no acceptable substitute exists.
The statements above best support which of the following conclusions?
(A) Where public-service workers are permitted to strike, contract negotiations with those workers are typically settled without a strike.
(B) Where strikes by all categories of pubic-sector workers are outlawed, no acceptable substitutes for the services provided by any of those workers are available.
(C) Binding arbitration tends to be more advantageous for public-service workers where it is the only available means of settling labor disputes with such workers.
(D) Most categories of public-sector workers have no counterparts in the private sector.
(E) A strike by workers in a local government is unlikely to be settled without help from an arbitrator.