Time – 35 minutes
Between the eighth and eleventh centuries A.D., the
Byzantine Empire staged an almost unparalleled
economic and cultural revival, a recovery that is all the
more striking because it followed a long period of severe
(5) internal decline. By the early eighth century, the empire
had lost roughly two-thirds of the territory it had
possessed in the year 600, and its remaining area was
being raided by Arabs and Bulgarians, who at times
threatened to take Constantinople and extinguish the
(10) empire altogether. The wealth of the state and its
subjects was greatly diminished, and artistic and literary
production had virtually ceased. By the early eleventh
century, however, the empire had regained almost half of
its lost possessions, its new frontiers were secure, and its
(15) influence extended far beyond its borders. The economy
had recovered, the treasury was full, and art and scho-
larship had advanced.
To consider the Byzantine military, cultural, and
economic advances as differentiated aspects of a single
(20) phenomenon is reasonable. After all, these three forms
of progress have gone together in a number of states and
civilizations. Rome under Augustus and fifth-century
Athens provide the most obvious examples in antiquity.
Moreover, an examination of the apparent sequential
(25) connections among military, economic, and cultural
forms of progress might help explain the dynamics of
The common explanation of these apparent conn-
ections in the case of Byzantium would run like this:
(30) when the empire had turned back enemy raids on its
own territory and had begun to raid and conquer enemy
territory, Byzantine resources naturally expanded and
more money became available to patronize art and lit-
erature. Therefore, Byzantine military achievements led to
(35) economic advances, which in turn led to cultural revival.
No doubt this hypothetical pattern did apply at times
during the course of the recovery. Yet it is not clear that
military advances invariably came first. economic
advances second, and intellectual advances third. In the
(40) 860's the Byzantine Empire began to recover from Arab
incursions so that by 872 the military balance with the
Abbasid Caliphate had been permanently altered in the
empire's favor. The beginning of the empire's economic
revival, however, can be placed between 810 and 830.
(45) Finally, the Byzantine revival of learning appears to
have begun even earlier. A number of notable scholars
and writers appeared by 788 and, by the last decade of
the eighth century, a cultural revival was in full bloom, a
revival that lasted until the fall of Constantinople in
(50) 1453.Thus the commonly expected order of military
revival followed by economic and then by cultural
recovery was reversed in Byzantium. In fact, the revival
of Byzantine learning may itself have influenced the
subsequent economic and military expansion.
1. Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
(A) The Byzantine Empire was a unique case in which the usual order of military and economic revival preceding cultural revival was reversed.
(B) The economic, cultural, and military revival in the Byzantine Empire between the eighth and eleventh centuries was similar in its order to the sequence of revivals in Augustan Rome and fifth-century Athens.
(C) After 810 Byzantine economic recovery spurred a military and, later, cultural expansion that lasted until 1453.
(D) The eighth-century revival of Byzantine learning is an inexplicable phenomenon, and its economic and military precursors have yet to be discovered.
(E) The revival of the Byzantine Empire between the eighth and eleventh centuries shows cultural rebirth preceding economic and military revival, the reverse of the commonly accepted order of progress.
2. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is which of the following?
(A) To establish the uniqueness of the Byzantine revival
(B) To show that Augustan Rome and fifth-century Athens are examples of
cultural, economic, and military expansion against which all subsequent cases
must be measured
(C) To suggest that cultural, economic. and military advances have tended to be closely interrelated in different societies.
(D) To argue that, while the revivals of Augustan Rome and fifth-century Athens were similar, they are unrelated to other historical examples
(E) To indicate that, wherever possible, historians should seek to make comparisons with the earliest chronological examples of revival
3. It can be inferred from the passage that by the eleventh century the Byzantine military forces
(A) had reached their peak and begun to decline
(B) had eliminated the Bulgarian army
(C) were comparable in size to the army of Rome under Augustus
(D) were strong enough to withstand the Abbasid Caliphate's military forces
(E) had achieved control of Byzantine governmental structures
4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Byzantine Empire sustained significant territorial losses
(A) in 600
(B) during the seventh century
(C) a century after the cultural achievements of the Byzantine Empire had been lost
(D) soon after the revival of Byzantine learning
(E) in the century after 873
5. In the third paragraph, the author most probably provides an explanation of the apparent connections among economic, military, and cultural development in order to
(A) suggest that the process of revival in Byzantium accords with this model
(B) set up an order of events that is then shown to be not generally applicable to the case of Byzantium
(C) cast aspersions on traditional historical scholarship about Byzantium
(D) suggest that Byzantium represents a case for which no historical precedent exists
(E) argue that military conquest is the paramount element in the growth of empires
6. Which of the following does the author mention as crucial evidence concerning the manner in which the Byzantine revival began?
(A) The Byzantine military revival of the 860's led to economic and cultural advances.
(B) The Byzantine cultural revival lasted until 1453.
(C) The Byzantine economic recovery began in the 900's.
(D) The revival of Byzantine learning began toward the end of the eighth century.
(E) By the early eleventh century the Byzantine Empire had regained much of its lost territory.
7. According to the author, " The common explanation" (line 28) of connections between economic, military, and cultural development is
(A) revolutionary and too new to have been applied to the history of the Byzantine Empire
(B) reasonable, but an antiquated theory of the nature of progress
(C) not applicable to the Byzantine revival as a whole, but does perhaps accurately describe limited periods during the revival
(D) equally applicable to the Byzantine case as a whole and to the history of military, economic, and cultural advances in ancient Greece and Rome
(E) essentially not helpful, because military, economic, and cultural advances are part of a single phenomenon
Virtually everything astronomers known about objects
outside the solar system is based on the detection of
photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there
is another form of radiation that permeates the universe:
(5) neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge,
and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other
particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire
universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of
matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neu-
(10) trinos can thus escape from regions of space where light
and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked
by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them
information about the site and circumstances of their
production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos
(15) could provide new information about a wide variety of
cosmic phenomena and about the history of the uni-
But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts
so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-five years
(20) passed between Pauli's hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all
research with neutrinos has been with neutrinos created
artificially in large particle accelerators and studied
under neutrino microscopes. But a neutrino telescope,
(25) capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to co-
nstruct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is
extremely massive, because great mass is synonymous
with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons),
and the more massive the detector, the greater the pro-
(30) bability of one of its nucleon's reacting with a neutrino.
In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded
from the interfering effects of other particles.
Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed
a means of detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the
(35) mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep Under-
water Muon and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for
placing an array of light sensors at a depth of five kilo-
meters under the ocean surface. The detecting medium is
the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a
(40)particle in an atom of seawater. the result is a cascade of
electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can
be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of sea-
water above the sensors will shield them from the interf-
ering effects of other high-energy particles raining down
(45) through the atmosphere.
The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project
is that it will exploit an important source of information
about the universe. The extension of astronomy from
visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays
(50) never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of
these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino astronomy
will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.
8. Which of the following titles best summarizes the passage as a whole?
(A) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
(B) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
(C) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
(D) The DUMAND System and How It Works
(E) The Properties of the Neutrino
9. With which of the following statements regarding eutrino astronomy would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present forms of astronomy.
(B) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the DUMAND project fails.
(C) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to major breakthroughs in astronomy.
(D) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that will be more surprising than past discoveries.
(E) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterized by a large time lag between hypothesis and experimental confirmation.
10. In the last paragraph, the author describes the development of astronomy in order to
(A) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino astronomy can be seen as part of a series of astronomical successes
(B) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
(C) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND apparatus in detecting neutrinos
(D) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino astronomy will illuminate
(E) contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with that of the astrophysicists working on the DUMAND project
11.According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos have for studies in astronomy is that they
(A) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
(B) possess a variable electric charge
(C) are usually extremely massive
(D) carry information about their history with them
(E) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles
12. According to the passage, the primary use of the apparatus mentioned in lines 24-32 would be to
(A) increase the mass of a neutrino
(B) interpret the information neutrinos carry with them
(C) study the internal structure of a neutrino
(D) see neutrinos in distant regions of space
(E) detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos
13. The passage states that interactions between neutrinos and other matter are
14. The passage mentions which of the following as a reason that neutrinos are hard to detect?
(A) Their pervasiveness in the universe
(B) Their ability to escape from different regions of space
(C) Their inability to penetrate dense matter
(D) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
(E) The infrequency of their interaction with other matter
15. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino with other matter can produce
(A) particles that are neutral and massive
(B) a form of radiation that permeates the universe
(C) inaccurate information about the site and circumstances of the neutrino's production
(D) charged particles and light
(E) a situation in which light and other forms of electromagnetic radiation
16. According to the passage, one of the methods used to establish the properties of neutrinos was
(A) detection of photons
(B) observation of the interaction of neutrinos with gamma rays
(C) observation of neutrinos that were artificially created
(D) measurement of neutrinos that interacted with particles of seawater
(E) experiments with electromagnetic radiation
Most economists in the united States seem
captivated by the spell of the free market. Conse-
quently, nothing seems good or normal that does
not accord with the requirements of the free market.
(5) A price that is determined by the seller or, for
that matter, established by anyone other than the
aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accord-
ingly, it requires a major act of will to think of
price-fixing (the determination of prices by the
(10) seller) as both " normal" and having a valuable
economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal
in all industrialized societies because the indus-
trial system itself provides, as an effortless conse-
quence of its own development, the price-fixing
(15) that it requires. Modern industrial planning
requires and rewards great size. Hence,
a comparatively small number of large firms will
be competing for the same group of consumers.
That each large firm will act with consideration of
(20) its own needs and thus avoid selling its products
for more than its competitors charge is commonly
recognized by advocates of free-market economic
theories. But each large firm will also act with
full consideration of the needs that it has in
(25) common with the other large firms competing for
the same customers. Each large firm will thus
avoid significant price-cutting, because price-
cutting would be prejudicial to the common interest
in a stable demand for products. Most economists
(30) do not see price-fixing when it occurs because
they expect it to be brought about by a number of
explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.
Moreover, those economists who argue that
allowing the free market to operate without inter-
(35) ference is the most efficient method of establishing
prices have not considered the economies of non-
socialist countries other than the United states.
These economies employ intentional price-fixing,
usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing
(40) by cartel and informal price-fixing by agreements
covering the members of an industry are common-
place. Were there something peculiarly efficient
about the free market and inefficient about price-
fixing, the countries that have avoided the first
(45)and used the second would have suffered
drastically in their economic development.
There is no indication that they have.
Socialist industry also works within a frame-
work of controlled prices. In the early 1970's,
(50) the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries
some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a
more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist
system. Economists in the United States have
hailed the change as a return to the free market.
(55) But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices
established by a free market over which they
exercise little influence than are capitalist firms;
rather, Soviet firms have been given the power to
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute the theory that the free market plays a useful role in the development of industrialized societies
(B) suggest methods by which economists and members of the government of the United States can recognize and combat price-fixing by large firms
(C) show that in industrialized societies price-fixing and the operation of the free market are not only compatible but also mutually beneficial
(D) explain the various ways in which industrialized societies can fix prices in order to stabilize the free market
(E) argue that price-fixing, in one form or another, is an inevitable part of and benefit to the economy of any industrialized society
18. The passage provides information that would answer which of the following questions about price-fixing?
I. What are some of the ways in which prices can be fixed?
II. For what products is price-fixing likely to be more profitable that the operation of the free market?
III.Is price-fixing more common in socialist industrialized societies or in non-socialist industrialized societies?
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
19. The author's attitude toward " Most economists in the United States" (line 1) can best be described as
(A) spiteful and envious
(B) scornful and denunciatory
(C) critical and condescending
(D) ambivalent but deferential
(E) uncertain but interested
20. It can be inferred from the author's argument that a price fixed by the seller " seems pernicious" (line 7) because
(A) people do not have confidence in large firms
(B) people do not expect the government to regulate prices
(C) most economists believe that consumers as a group should determine prices
(D) most economists associate fixed prices with communist and socialist economies
(E) most economists believe that no one group should determine prices
21. The suggestion in the passage that price-fixing in industrialized societies is normal arises from the author's statement that price-fixing is
(A) a profitable result of economic development
(B) an inevitable result of the industrial system
(C) the result of a number of carefully organized decisions
(D) a phenomenon common to industrialized and nonindustrialized societies
(E) a phenomenon best achieved cooperatively by government and industry
22. According to the author, price-fixing in nonsocialist countries is often
(A) accidental but productive
(B) illegal but useful
(C) legal and innovative
(D) traditional and rigid
(E) intentional and widespread
23. According to the author, what is the result of the Soviet Union's change in economic policy in the 1970's
(A) Soviet firms show greater profit.
(B) Soviet firms have less control over the free market.
(C) Soviet firms are able to adjust to tech nological advances.
(D) Soviet firms have some authority to fix prices.
(E) Soviet firms are more responsive to the free market.
24. With which of the following statements regarding the behavior of large firms in industrialized societies would the author be most likely to agree?
(A) The directors of large firms will continue to anticipate the demand for products
(B) The directors of large firms are less interested in achieving a predictable level of profit than in achieving a large profit.
(C) The directors of large firms will strive to reduce the costs of their products
(D) Many directors of large firms believe that the government should establish the prices that will be charged for products
(E) Many directors of large firms believe that the price charged for products is likely to increase annually.
25. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) predicting the consequences of a practice
(B) criticizing a point of view
(C) calling attention to recent discoveries
(D) proposing a topic for research
(E) summarizing conflicting opinions
Time – 35 minutes
1. Rural households have more purchasing power than do urban or suburban households at the same income level, since some of the income urban and suburban households use for food and shelter can be used by rural households for other needs.
Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?
(A) The average rural household includes more people than does the average urban or suburban household.
(B) Rural households have lower food and housing costs than do either urban or suburban households.
(C) Suburban households generally have more purchasing power than do either rural or urban households.
(D) The median income of urban and suburban households is generally higher than that of rural households.
(E) All three types of households spend more of their income on food and housing than on all other purchases combined.
2. In 1985 state border colleges in Texas lost the enrollment of more than half, on average, of the Mexican nationals they had previously served each year. Teaching faculties have alleged that this extreme drop resulted from a rise in tuition for international and out-of-state students from $40 to $120 per credit hour.
Which of the following, if feasible, offers the best prospects for alleviating the problem of the drop in enrollment of Mexican nationals as the teaching faculties assessed it?
(A) Providing grants-in-aid to Mexican nationals to study in Mexican universities
(B) Allowing Mexican nationals to study in Texas border colleges and to pay in-state tuition rates, which are the same as the previous international rate
(C) Reemphasizing the goals and mission of the Texas state border colleges as serving both in-state students and Mexican nationals
(D) Increasing the financial resources of Texas colleges by raising the tuition for in-state students attending state institutions
(E) Offering career counseling for those Mexican nationals who graduate from state border colleges and intend to return to Mexico
3. Affirmative action is good business. So asserted the National Association of Manufacturers while urging retention of an executive order requiring some federal contractors to set numerical goals for hiring minorities and women. " Diversity in work force participation has produced new ideas in management, product development, and marketing," the association claimed.
The association's argument as it is presented in the passage above would be most strengthened if which of the following were true?
(A) The percentage of minority and women workers in business has increased more slowly than many minority and women's groups would prefer.
(B) Those businesses with the highest percentages of minority and women workers are those that have been the most innovative and profitable
(C) Disposable income has been rising as fast among minorities and women as among the population as a whole.
(D) The biggest growth in sales in the manufacturing sector has come in industries that market the most innovative products.
(E) Recent improvements in management practices have allowed many manufacturers to experience enormous gains in worker productivity.
Questions 4-5 refer to the following.
If the airspace around centrally located airports were restricted to commercial airliners and only those private planes equipped with radar, most of the private-plane traffic would be forced to use outlying airfields. Such a reduction in the amount of private-plane traffic would reduce the risk of midair collision around the centrally located airports.
4. The conclusion drawn in the first sentence depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Outlying airfields would be as convenient as centrally located airports for most pilots of private planes.
(B) Most outlying airfields are not equipped to handle commercial-airline traffic.
(C) Most private planes that use centrally located airports are not equipped with radar.
(D) Commercial airliners are at greater risk of becoming involved in midair collisions than are private planes.
(E) A reduction in the risk of midair collision would eventually lead to increases in commercial-airline traffic.
5. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn in the second sentence?
(A) Commercial airliners are already required by law to be equipped with extremely sophisticated radar systems.
(B) Centrally located airports are experiencing over-crowded airspace primarily because of sharp increases in commercial-airline traffic.
(C) Many pilots of private planes would rather buy radar equipment than be excluded from centrally located airports.
(D) The number of midair collisions that occur near centrally located airports has decreased in recent years.
(E) Private planes not equipped with radar systems cause a disproportionately large number of midair collisions around centrally located airports.
6. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Established companies concentrate on defending what they already have. Consequently, they tend not to be innovative themselves and tend to underestimate the effects of the innovations of others. The clearest example of this defensive strategy is the fact that…….
(A) ballpoint pens and soft-tip markers have eliminated the traditional market for fountain pens, clearing the way for the marketing of fountain pens as luxury or prestige items
(B) a highly successful automobile was introduced by the same company that had earlier introduced a model that had been a dismal failure
(C) a once-successful manufacturer of slide rules reacted to the introduction of electronic calculators by trying to make better slide rules
(D) one of the first models of modern accounting machines, designed for use in the banking industry, was purchased by a public library as well as by banks
(E) the inventor of a commonly used anesthetic did not intend the product to be used by dentists, who currently account for almost the entire market for that drug
7. Most archaeologists have held that people first reached the Americas less than 20,000 years ago by crossing a land bridge into North America. But recent discoveries of human shelters in South America dating from 32,000 years ago have led researchers to speculate that people arrived in South America first, after voyaging across the Pacific, and then spread northward.
Which of the following, if it were discovered, would be pertinent evidence against the speculation above?
(A) A rock shelter near Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, contains evidence of use by human beings 19,000 years ago.
(B) Some North American sites of human habitation predate any sites found in South America.
(C) The climate is warmer at the 32,000-year-old south American site than at the oldest known North American site.
(D) The site in South America that was occupied 32,000 years ago was continuously occupied until 6,000 years ago.
(E) The last Ice Age, between 11,500 and 20,000 years ago, considerably lowered worldwide sea levels.
8. In Asia, where palm trees are non-native, the trees' flowers have traditionally been pollinated by hand, which has kept palm fruit productivity unnaturally low. When weevils known to be efficient pollinators of palm flowers were introduced into Asia in 1980, palm fruit productivity increased--by up to fifty percent in some areas--but then decreased sharply in 1984.
Which of the following statements, if true, would best explain the 1984 decrease in productivity?
(A) Prices for palm fruit fell between 1980 and 1984 following the rise in production and a concurrent fall in demand.
(B) Imported trees are often more productive than native trees because the imported ones have left behind their pests and diseases in their native lands.
(C) Rapid increases in productivity tend to deplete trees of nutrients needed for the development of the fruit-producing female flowers.
(D) The weevil population in Asia remained at approximately the same level between 1980 and 1984.
(E) Prior to 1980 another species of insect pollinated the Asian palm trees, but not as efficiently as the species of weevil that was introduced in 1980.
9. Since the mayor's publicity campaign for Greenville's bus service began six months ago, morning automobile traffic into the midtown area of the city has decreased seven percent. During the same period, there has been an equivalent rise in the number of persons riding buses into the midtown area. Obviously, the mayor's publicity campaign has convinced many people to leave their cars at home and ride the bus to work..
Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the conclusion drawn above?
(A) Fares for all bus routes in Greenville have risen an average of five percent during the past six months.
(B) The mayor of Greenville rides the bus to City Hall in the city's midtown area.
(C) Road reconstruction has greatly reduced the number of lanes available to commuters in major streets leading to the midtown area during the past six months.
(D) The number of buses entering the midtown area of Greenville during the morning hours is exactly the same now as it was one year ago.
(E) Surveys show that longtime bus riders are no more satisfied with the Greenville bus service than they were before the mayor's publicity campaign began.
10. In the aftermath of a worldwide stock-market crash, Country T claimed that the severity of the stock-market crash it experienced resulted from the accelerated process of denationalization many of its industries underwent shortly before the crash.
Which of the following, if it could be carried out, would be most useful in an evaluation of Country T's assessment of the causes of the severity of its stock-market crash?
(A) Calculating the average loss experienced by individual traders in Country T during the crash
(B) Using economic theory to predict the most likely date of the next crash in Country T
(C) Comparing the total number of shares sold during the worst days of the crash in Country T to the total number of shares sold in Country T just prior to the crash.
(D) Comparing the severity of the crash in Country T to the severity of the crash in countries otherwise economically similar to Country T that have not experienced recent denationalization
(E) Comparing the long-term effects of the crash on the purchasing power of the currency of Country T to the immediate, more severe short-term effects of the crash on the purchasing power of the currency of Country T
11. With the emergence of biotechnology companies, it was feared that they would impose silence about proprietary results on their in-house researchers and their academic consultants. This constraint, in turn, would slow the development of biological science and engineering.
Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken most seriously the prediction of scientific secrecy described above?
(A) Biotechnological research funded by industry has reached some conclusions that are of major scientific importance.
(B) When the results of scientific research are kept secret, independent researchers are unable to build on those results.
(C) Since the research priorities of biotechnology companies are not the same as those of academic institutions, the financial support of research by such companies distorts the research agenda.
(D) To enhance the companies' standing in the scientific community, the biotechnology companies encourage employees to publish their results, especially results that are important.
(E)Biotechnology companies devote some of their research resources to problems that are of fundamental scientific importance and that are not expected to produce immediate practical applications.
12. Some people have questioned the judge's objectivity in cases of sex discrimination against women. But the record shows that in sixty percent of such cases, the judge has decided in favor of the women. This record demonstrates that the judge has not discriminated against women in cases of sex discrimination against women.
The argument above is flawed in that it ignores the possibility that
(A) a large number of the judge's cases arose out of allegations of sex discrimination against women
(B) many judges find it difficult to be objective in cases of sex discrimination against women
(C) the judge is biased against women defendants or plaintiffs in cases that do not involve sex discrimination
(D) the majority of the cases of sex discrimination against women that have reached the judge's court have been appealed from a lower court
(E) the evidence shows that the women should have won in more than sixty percent of the judge's cases involving sex discrimination against women
13. The tobacco industry is still profitable and projections are that it will remain so. In the United States this year, the total amount of tobacco sold by tobacco-farmers has increased, even though the number of adults who smoke has decreased.
Each of the following, if true, could explain the simultaneous increase in tobacco sales and decrease in the number of adults who smoke EXCEPT.
(A) During this year, the number of women who have begun to smoke is greater than the number of men who have quit smoking.
(B) The number of teen-age children who have begun to smoke this year is greater than the number of adults who have quit smoking during the same period.
(C) During this year, the number of nonsmokers who have begun to use chewing tobacco or snuff is greater than the number of people who have quit smoking.
(D) The people who have continued to smoke consume more tobacco per person than they did in the past.
(E) More of the cigarettes made in the United States this year were exported to other countries than was the case last year.
14. Kale has more nutritional value than spinach. But since collard greens have more nutritional value than lettuce, it follows that kale has more nutritional value than lettuce.
Any of the following, if introduced into the argument as an additional premise, makes the argument above logically correct EXCEPT:
(A) Collard greens have more nutritional value than kale.
(B) Spinach has more nutritional value than lettuce.
(C) Spinach has more nutritional value than collard greens.
(D) Spinach and collard greens have the same nutritional value.
(E) Kale and collard greens have the same nutritional value.
15. On the basis of a decrease in the college-age population, many colleges now anticipate increasingly smaller freshman classes each year. Surprised by a 40 percent increase in qualified applicants over the previous year, however, administrators at Nice College now plan to hire more faculty for courses taken by all freshmen.
Which of the following statements about Nice College's current qualified applicants, if true, would strongly suggest that the administrators' plan is flawed?
(A) A substantially higher percentage than usual plan to study for advanced degrees after graduation from college.
(B) According to their applications, their level of participation in extracurricular activities and varsity sports is unusually high.
(C) According to their applications, none of them lives in a foreign country.
(D) A substantially lower percentage than usual rate Nice College as their first choice among the colleges to which they are applying.
(E) A substantially lower percentage than usual list mathematics as their intended major.
Questions 16-17 are based on the following.
A researcher discovered that people who have low levels of immune-system activity tend to score much lower on tests of mental health than do people with normal or high immune-system activity. The researcher concluded from this experiment that the immune system protects against mental illness as well as against physical disease.
16. The researcher's conclusion depends on which of the following assumptions?
(A) High immune-system activity protects against mental illness better than normal immune-system activity does.
(B) Mental illness is similar to physical disease in its effects on body system.
(C) People with high immune-system activity cannot develop mental illness.
(D) Mental illness does not cause people's immune-system activity to decrease.
(E) Psychological treatment of mental illness is not as effective as is medical treatment.
17. The researcher's conclusion would be most seriously weakened if it were true that
(A) there was a one-year delay between the completion of a pilot study for the experiment and the initiation of the experiment itself
(B) people's levels of immune-system activity are not affected by their use of medications
(C) a few people with high immune-system activity had scores on the test of mental health that were similar to the scores of people who had normal immune-system activity
(D) people who have low immune-system activity tend to contract more viral infections than do people with normal or high immune-system activity
(E) high levels of stress first cause mental illness and then cause decreased immune-system activity in normal individuals
18. The value of a product is determined by the ratio of its quality to its price. The higher the value of a product, the better will be its competitive position. Therefore, either increasing the quality or lowering the price of a given product will increase the likelihood that consumer will select that product rather than a competing one.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn above?
(A) It is possible to increase both the quality and the price of a product without changing its competitive position.
(B) For certain segments of the population of consumers, higher-priced brands of some product lines are preferred to the lower-priced brands.
(C) Competing products often try to appeal to different segments of the population of consumers.
(D) The competitive position of a product can be affected by such factors as advertising and brand loyalty.
(E) Consumers' perceptions of the quality of a product are based on the actual quality of the product.
19. In January there was a large drop in the number of new houses sold, because interest rates for mortgages were falling and many consumers were waiting to see how low the rates would go. This large sales drop was accompanied by a sharp rise in the average price of new houses sold.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the sharp rise in the average price of new houses?
(A) Sales of higher-priced houses were unaffected by the sales drop because their purchasers have fewer constraints limiting the total amount they pay.
(B) Labor agreements of builders with construction unions are not due to expire until the next January.
(C) The prices of new houses have been rising slowly over the past three years because there is an increasing shortage of housing.
(D) There was a greater amount of moderate-priced housing available for resale by owners during January than in the preceding three months.
(E) Interest rates for home mortgages are expected to rise sharply later in the year if predictions of increased business activity in general prove to be accurate.
20. Seven countries signed a treaty binding each of them to perform specified actions on a certain fixed date, with the actions of each conditional on simultaneous action taken by the other countries. Each country was also to notify the six other countries when it had completed its action.
The simultaneous-action provision of the treaty leaves open the possibility that
(A) the compliance date was subject to postponement, according to the terms of the treaty
(B) one of the countries might not be required to make any changes or take any steps in order to comply with the treaty, whereas all the other countries are so required.
(C) each country might have a well-founded excuse, based on the provision, for its own lack of compliance
(D) the treaty specified that the signal for one of the countries to initiate action was notification by the other countries that they had completed action
(E) there was ambiguity with respect to the date after which all actions contemplated in the treaty are to be complete.
21.Certain messenger molecules fight damage to the lungs from noxious air by
telling the muscle cells encircling the lungs' airways to contract. This
partially seals off the lungs. An asthma attack occurs when the messenger
molecules are activated unnecessarily, in response to harmless things like
pollen or household dust.
Which of the following, if true, points to the most serious flaw of a plan to develop a medication that would prevent asthma attacks by blocking receipt of any messages sent by the messenger molecules referred to above?
(A) Researchers do not yet know how the body produces the messenger molecules that trigger asthma attacks.
(B) Researchers do not yet know what makes one person's messenger molecules more easily activated than another's.
(C) Such a medication would not become available for several years, because of long lead times in both development and manufacture.
(D) Such a medication would be unable to distinguish between messages triggered by pollen and household dust and messages triggered by noxious air.
(E) Such a medication would be a preventative only and would be unable to alleviate an asthma attack once it had started.
22. Since the routine use of antibiotics can give rise to resistant bacteria
capable of surviving antibiotic environments, the presence of resistant bacteria
in people could be due to the human use of prescription antibiotics. Some
scientists, however, believe that most resistant bacteria in people derive from
human consumption of bacterially infected meat.
Which of the following statements, if true, would most significantly strengthen the hypothesis of the scientists?
(A) Antibiotics are routinely included in livestock feed so that livestock producers can increase the rate of growth of their animals.
(B) Most people who develop food poisoning from bacterially infected meat are treated with prescription antibiotics.
(C) The incidence of resistant bacteria in people has tended to be much higher in urban areas than in rural areas where meat is of comparable quality.
(D) People who have never taken prescription antibiotics are those least likely to develop resistant bacteria.
(E) Livestock producers claim that resistant bacteria in animals cannot be transmitted to people through infected meat.
23. The recent decline in the value of the dollar was triggered by a
prediction of slower economic growth in the coming year. But that prediction
would not have adversely affected the dollar had it not been for the
government's huge budget deficit, which must therefore be decreased to prevent
future currency declines.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion about how to prevent future currency declines?
(A) The government has made little attempt to reduce the budget deficit.
(B) The budget deficit has not caused a slowdown in economic growth.
(C) The value of the dollar declined several times in the year prior to the recent prediction of slower economic growth.
(D) Before there was a large budget deficit, predictions of slower economic growth frequently caused declines in the dollar's value.
(E) When there is a large budget deficit, other events in addition to predictions of slower economic growth sometimes trigger declines in currency value.
24. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
At a recent conference on environmental threats to the North Sea, most participating countries favored uniform controls on the quality of effluents, whether or not specific environmental damage could be attributed to a particular source of effluent. What must, of course, be shown, in order to avoid excessively restrictive controls, is that ___________.
(A) any uniform controls that are adopted are likely to be implemented without delay
(B) any substance to be made subject to controls can actually cause environmental damage
(C) the countries favoring uniform controls are those generating the largest quantities of effluents
(D) all of any given pollutant that is to be controlled actually reaches the North Sea at present
(E) environmental damage already inflicted on the North Sea is reversible
25. Traditionally, decision-making by managers that is reasoned step-by-step
has been considered preferable to intuitive decision-making. However, a recent
study found that top managers used intuition significantly more than did most
middle-or lower-level managers. This confirms the alternative view that
intuition is actually more effective than careful, methodical reasoning.
The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
(A) Methodical, step-by-step reasoning is inappropriate for making many real-life management decisions.
(B) Top managers have the ability to use either intuitive reasoning or methodical, step-by-step reasoning in making decisions.
(C) The decisions made by middle-and lower-level managers can be made as easily by using methodical reasoning as by using intuitive reasoning.
(D) Top managers use intuitive reasoning in making the majority of their decisions.
(E) Top managers are more effective at decision-making than middle-or lower-level managers
Time – 35 minutes
Five participants at an international conference are planning to take a car trip together. Two persons-- the driver and one passenger-- will sit in the front seat of the car, and three persons will sit in the back seat. The names of the five participants and all of the languages that each of them speaks are as follows:
Mohsen: Farsi and Hebrew
Orlando: Italian and Russian
Shelly: Hebrew and Russian
Theo: German and Italian
Ursula: Farsi, German, and Hebrew
The participants must be seated in the car according to the following restrictions:
The driver must be Orlando or else Shelly.
Two persons can be seated side by side only if at least one of the languages they speak is the same.
1.Which of the following is an acceptable seating arrangement, with the driver listed first under " Front Seat" and the passengers in the back seat listed from one side to the other side?
Front Seat Back Seat
(A) Mohsen, Ursula Theo, Orlando, Shelly
(B) Orlando, Mohsen Shelly, Theo, Ursula
(C) Orlando, Shelly Mohsen, Ursula, Theo
(D) Shelly, Mohsen Ursula, Orlando, Theo
(E) Shelly, Orland Theo, Mohsen, Ursula
2.If Mohsen sits in the front seat, which of the following can be true?
(A) Orlando will be the driver.
(B) Orlando will sit next to Ursula.
(C) Shelly will sit in the middle position in the back
(D) Shelly will be the driver.
(E) Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.
3.If Theo sits in the front seat, which of the following must be true?
(A) Mohsen and Shelly will sit side by side.
(B) Mohsen and Ursula will sit side by side.
(C) Orlando and Theo will sit side by side.
(D) Orlando and Ursula will sit side by side.
(E) Shelly and Ursula will sit side by side.
4.If both persons sitting in the front seat speak Hebrew, then it must be true that
(A) exactly one person sitting in the back seat speaks Russian
(B) neither speaker of Farsi is sitting in the front seat
(C) no one sitting in the front seat speaks Russian
(D) no one sitting in the back seat speaks Hebrew
(E) a speaker of Russian is sitting in the middle position in the back seat
5.Which of the following must be true if Orlando is the driver?
(A) If Shelly sits in the front seat, Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.
(B) If Shelly sits in the back seat, she will sit next to Ursula.
(C) If Theo sits in the front seat, Ursula will sit in the middle position in the back seat.
(D) If Theo sits in the back seat, he will sit between Mohsen and Ursula.
(E) If Ursula sits in the back seat, she will sit in the middle position in the back seat.seat.
Questions 6-7 are based on the following graph
6.Which of the following, if true about early 1990, would most help to explain the decrease, in 1990, of the percent of people commuting to jobs in downtown Allentia who do so via public transportation?
(A) The termination of a governmental subsidy to the public transportation system that serves both the city and its suburbs caused a substantial increase in fares.
(B) Many new trains and buses were put into service in the public transportation system both within the city and between the city and its suburbs.
(C) Security was improved in the passenger waiting areas and on the public trains and buses used within the city as well as on those used between the city and its suburbs.
(D) Legislation was passed that increased the frequency of public transportation service within the city as well as between the city and its suburbs.
(E) The number of points served by the public transportation system both within the city and between the city and its suburbs was increased substantially by adding new routes.
7.Which of the following, if true about early 1992, could most contribute to an explanation of the change, between 1991 and 1992, in the percent of those who commute via public transportation from the outer suburbs of Allentia, as compared to the change for the other group of commuters?
(A) The price per gallon for gasoline declined by five percent.
(B) The cost of using public transportation, per mile traveled, increased.
(C) The number of people who commuted to work via public transportation from points in or near downtown Allentia increased.
(D) The frequency of public transportation service between the city and its suburbs decreased.
(E) The cost per mile of getting to and from work by car tripled.
8.A new and more aggressive form of the fungus that caused the Irish potato famine of the nineteenth century has recently arisen.
However, since this new form of the fungus can be killed by increased application of currently used fungicides, it is unlikely that the fungus will cause widespread food shortages in countries
that currently rely on potatoes for sustenance.
Which of the following, if true, most calls into question the conclusion in the argument above?
(A) Though potatoes are an important staple crop in many parts of the world, people in most countries rely primarily on wheat or rice for sustenance.
(B) Potato farmers in many countries to which the new form of the fungus has spread cannot afford to increase their spending on fungicides.
(C) The new form of the fungus first began to spread when contaminated potato seeds were inadvertently exported from a major potato-exporting country.
(D) Potato farmers in most countries use several insecticides on their crops in addition to fungicides of the sort that kill the new form of the fungus.
(E) Most governments have funds set aside that can be used to alleviate the effects of large-scale disasters such as severe food shortages and floods.
The organizers of a music festival are scheduling exactly six master classes, one class per day for six consecutive days. Three of the classes will be given by violinists and three by pianists. The only musicians who can teach the classes are the violinists F, G, H, and J, and the pianists R, S, T, W, and Z. The festival's organizers must observe the following constraints:
No musician will teach more than one class.
F will not teach unless the first three classes are taught by violinists.
If J teaches a class, it will be the sixth.
R will teach only if T teaches the first class.
No pianist will teach on a day that immediately precedes or immediately follows a day on which W teaches.
9.Which of the following can be the musicians scheduled to teach the master classes, in the order in which they will teach, from first to sixth?
(A) F, J, G, T, Z, S
(B) F, W, H, T, G, Z
(C) G, F, H, T, S, Z
(D) S, G, W, H, R, J
(E) T, G, W, H, R, S
10.If R is scheduled to teach the second class, which of the following could be scheduled to teach the third class?
11.Which of the following must be true about the schedule of master classes?
(A) J is not scheduled to teach if R is scheduled to teach.
(B) J is not scheduled to teach if T is scheduled to teach.
(C) J is not scheduled to teach if W is scheduled to teach.
(D) W is not scheduled to teach if F is scheduled to teach.
(E) Z is not scheduled to teach if W is scheduled to teach.
12.If pianists are scheduled to teach the fourth, fifth, and sixth classes, which of the following must be true?
(A) F is scheduled to teach the first class.
(B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
(C) H is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class Z is scheduled to teach.
(D) R is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class T is scheduled to teach.
(E) S is scheduled to teach an earlier class than the class T is scheduled to teach.
13.Which of the following must be true about the schedule of the master classes?
(A) If F is scheduled to teach a class, then H is also scheduled to teach a class.
(B) If J is scheduled to teach a class, then R is also scheduled to teach a class.
(C) If J is scheduled to teach a class, then S is also scheduled to teach a class.
(D) If T is scheduled to teach a class, then R is also scheduled to teach a class.
(E) If W is scheduled to teach a class, then Z is also scheduled to teach a class.
14.If classes are scheduled so that the classes taught by pianists and the classes taught by violinists alternate with one another, which of the following can be true?
(A) F is scheduled to teach the fourth class.
(B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
(C) H is scheduled to teach the third class.
(D) R is scheduled to teach the fifth class.
(E) W is scheduled to teach the second class.
15.If a violinist is scheduled to teach the first class and another violinist is scheduled to teach the sixth class, which of the following can be true?
(A) F is scheduled to teach the second class.
(B) H is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
(C) R is scheduled to teach the fourth class.
(D) T is scheduled to teach the second class.
(E) W is scheduled to teach the third class.
16.Which of the following CANNOT be true about the schedule of the master classes?
(A) F is scheduled to teach the third class.
(B) G is scheduled to teach the first class.
(C) T is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
(D) W is scheduled to teach the sixth class.
(E) Z is scheduled to teach the fifth class.
In a small office suite, six offices are arranged in a straight line, one after another, and are consecutively numbered 1 through 6. Exactly six people-- P, Q, R, S, T and U-- are to be assigned to these six offices, exactly one
person to an office, according to the following conditions:
P must be assigned to an office immediately adjacent to the office to which T is assigned.
Q cannot be assigned to an office immediately adjacent to the office to which S is assigned.
R must be assigned either to office 1 or to office 6.
S must be assigned to a lower-numbered office than the office to which U is assigned.
17.Which of the following can be the list of the six people in the order of their offices, from office 1 through office 6?
(A) Q, U, S, T, P, R
(B) R, P, T, S, U, Q
(C) R, S, Q, U, P, T
(D) S, T, Q, P, U, R
(E) T, P, S, R, Q, U
18.If T is assigned to office 6. then U must be assigned to office
19.If Q is assigned to office 2, then the person assigned to office 6 must be
20.If Q is assigned to office 1, which of the following CANNOT be true?
(A) P is assigned to office 3.
(B) P is assigned to office 4.
(C) S is assigned to office 4.
(D) T is assigned to office 2.
(E) T is assigned to office 3.
21.If U is assigned to office 3, then Q must be assigned to office
(A) 1 or 2
(B) 1 or 6
(C) 2 or 5
(D) 4 or 5
(E) 4 or 6
22.If S is assigned to office 2, which of the following can be true?
(A) P is assigned to office 1.
(B) Q is assigned to office 3.
(C) R is assigned to office 6.
(D) T is assigned to office 5.
(E) U is assigned to office 4.
23.As government agencies, faced with budget difficulties, reduce their funding for scientific research, a greater amount of such research is being funded by private foundations. This shift means that research projects likely to produce controversial results will almost certainly comprise a smaller proportion of all funded research projects, since private foundations, concerned about their public image, tend to avoid controversy.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Only research that is conducted without concern for the possibility of generating controversy is likely to produce scientifically valid results.
(B) Private foundations that fund scientific research projects usually recognize that controversial results from those projects cannot always be avoided.
(C) Scientists who conduct research projects funded by private foundations are unlikely to allow the concerns of the funding organizations to influence the manner in which they conduct the research.
(D) Many government agencies are more concerned about their public image than are most private foundations.
(E) Government agencies are more willing than are private foundations to fund research projects that are likely to produce controversial results.
24.Juries in criminal trials do not base verdicts on uncorroborated testimony given by any one witness. Rightly so, because it is usually prudent to be highly skeptical of unsubstantiated claims made by any one person. But then, to be consistent, juries should end an all-too-common practice: convicting defendants on the basis of an uncorroborated full confession.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
(A) Juries often acquit in cases in which a defendant retracts a full confession made before trial.
(B) The process of jury selection is designed to screen out people who have a firm opinion about the defendant's guilt in advance of the trial.
(C) Defendants sometimes make full confessions when they did in fact do what they are accused of doing and have come to believe that the prosecutor has compelling proof of this.
(D) Highly suggestible people who are accused of wrongdoing sometimes become so unsure of their own recollection of the past that they can come to accept the accusations made against them.
(E) Many people believe that juries should not convict defendants who have not made a full confession.
25.Although spinach is rich in calcium, it also contains large amounts of oxalic acid, a substance that greatly impedes calcium absorption by the body. Therefore, other calcium-containing foods must be eaten either instead of or in addition to spinach if a person is to be sure of getting enough calcium.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argu-ment above?
(A)Rice, which does not contain calcium, counteracts the effects of oxalic acid on calcium absorption.
(B) Dairy products, which contain even more calcium than spinach does, are often eaten by people who eat spinach on a regularbasis.
(C) Neither the calcium nor the oxalic acid in spinach is destroyed when spinach is cooked.
(D) Many leafy green vegetables other than spinach that are rich in calcium also contain high concentrations of oxalic acid.
(E) Oxalic acid has little effect on the body's ability to absorb nutrients other than calcium.
Time – 35 minutes
1. Child's World, a chain of toy stores, has relied on a " supermarket concept" of computerized inventory control and customer self-service to eliminate the category of sales clerks from its force of employees. It now plans to employ the same concept in selling children's clothes.
The plan of Child's World assumes that
(A) supermarkets will not also be selling children's clothes in the same manner
(B) personal service by sales personnel is not required for selling children's clothes successfully
(C) the same kind of computers will be used in inventory control for both clothes and toys at Child's World
(D) a self-service plan cannot be employed without computerized inventory control
(E) sales clerks are the only employees of Child's World who could be assigned tasks related to inventory control
2. Continuous indoor fluorescent light benefits the health of hamsters with inherited heart disease. A group of them exposed to continuous fluorescent light survived twenty-five percent longer than a similar group exposed instead to equal periods of indoor fluorescent light and of darkness.
The method of the research described above is most likely to be applicable in addressing which of the following questions?
(A) Can industrial workers who need to see their work do so better by sunlight or by fluorescent light?
(B) Can hospital lighting be improved to promote the recovery of patients?
(C) How do deep-sea fish survive in total darkness?
(D) What are the inherited illnesses to which hamsters are subject?
(E) Are there plants that require specific periods of darkness in order to bloom?
3. Millions of identical copies of a plant can be produced using new tissue-culture and cloning techniques.
If plant propagation by such methods in laboratories proves economical, each
of the following, if true, represents a benefit of the new techniques to farmers
(A) The techniques allow the development of superior strains to take place more rapidly, requiring fewer generations of plants grown to maturity.
(B) It is less difficult to care for plants that will grow at rates that do not vary widely.
(C) Plant diseases and pests, once they take hold, spread more rapidly among genetically uniform plants than among those with genetic variations.
(D) Mechanical harvesting of crops is less difficult if plants are more uniform in size.
(E) Special genetic traits can more easily be introduced into plant strains with the use of the new techniques.
4. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Sales campaigns aimed at the faltering personal computer market have strongly emphasized ease of use, called user-friendliness. This emphasis is oddly premature and irrelevant in the eyes of most potential buyers, who are trying to address the logically prior issue of whether----
(A) user-friendliness also implies that owners can service their own computers
(B) personal computers cost more the more user-friendly they are
(C) currently available models are user-friendly enough to suit them
(D) the people promoting personal computers use them in their own homes
(E) they have enough sensible uses for a personal computer to justify the expense of buying one
5. A weapons-smuggling incident recently took place in country Y. We all know that Y is a closed society. So Y's government must have known about the weapons.
Which of the following is an assumption that would make the conclusion above logically correct?
(A) If a government knows about a particular weapons-smuggling incident, it must have intended to use the weapons for its own purposes.
(B) If a government claims that it knew nothing about a particular weapons-smuggling incident, it must have known everything about it.
(C) If a government does not permit weapons to enter a country, it is a closed society.
(D) If a country is a closed society, its government has a large contingent of armed guards patrolling its borders.
(E) If a country is a closed society, its government has knowledge about everything that occurs in the country.
6. Banning cigarette advertisements in the mass media will not reduce the number of young people who smoke. They know that cigarettes exist and they know how to get them. They do not need the advertisements to supply that information.
The above argument would be most weakened if which of the following were true?
(A) Seeing or hearing an advertisement for a product tends to increase people's desire for that product.
(B) Banning cigarette advertisements in the mass media will cause an increase in advertisements in places where cigarettes are sold.
(C) Advertisements in the mass media have been an exceedingly large part of the expenditures of the tobacco companies.
(D) Those who oppose cigarette use have advertised against it in the mass media ever since cigarettes were found to be harmful.
(E) Older people tend to be less influenced by mass-media advertisements than younger people tend to be.
7. People tend to estimate the likelihood of an event's occurrence according to its salience; that is, according to how strongly and how often it comes to their attention.
By placement and headlines, newspapers emphasize stories about local crime over stories about crime elsewhere and about many other major events.
It can be concluded on the basis of the statements above that, if they are true, which of the following is most probably also true?
(A) The language used in newspaper headlines about local crime is inflammatory and fails to respect the rights of suspects.
(B)The coverage of international events in newspapers is neglected in favor of the coverage of local events.
(C) Readers of local news in newspapers tend to overestimate the amount of crime in their own localities relative to the amount of crime in other places.
(D) None of the events concerning other people that are reported in newspapers is so salient in people's minds as their own personal experiences.
(E) The press is the news medium that focuses people's attention most strongly on local crimes.
8. By analyzing the garbage of a large number of average-sized households, a group of modern urban anthropologists has found that a household discards less food the more standardized--made up of canned and prepackaged foods--its diet is. The more standardized a household's diet is, however, the greater the quantities of fresh produce the household throws away.
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?
(A) An increasing number of households rely on a highly standardized diet.
(B) The less standardized a household's diet is, the more nonfood waste the household discards.
(C) The less standardized a household's diet is, the smaller is the proportion of fresh produce in the household's food waste.
(D) The less standardized a household's diet is, the more canned and prepackaged foods the household discards as waste.
(E) The more fresh produce a household buys, the more fresh produce it throws away.
Questions 9–10 are based on the following.
In the past, teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries were predominantly men; these occupations slipped in pay and status when they became largely occupied by women. Therefore, if women become the majority in currently male-dominated professions like accounting, law, and medicine, the income and prestige of these professions will also drop.
9. The argument above is based on
(A) another argument that contains circular reasoning
(B) an attempt to refute a generalization by means of an exceptional case
(C) an analogy between the past and the future
(D) an appeal to popular beliefs and values
(E) an attack on the character of the opposition.
10. Which of the following, if true, would most likely be part of the evidence used to refute the conclusion above?
(A) Accountants, lawyers, and physicians attained their current relatively high levels of income and prestige at about the same time that the pay and status of teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries slipped.
(B) When large numbers of men join a female-dominated occupation, such as airline flight attendant, the status and pay of the occupation tend to increase.
(C) The demand for teachers and secretaries has increased significantly in recent years, while the demand for bank tellers has remained relatively stable.
(D) If present trends in the awarding of law degrees to women continue, it will be at least two decades before the majority of lawyers are women.
(E) The pay and status of female accountants, lawyers, and physicians today are governed by significantly different economic and sociological forces than were the pay and status of female teachers, bank tellers, and secretaries in the past.
11. An electric-power company gained greater profits and provided electricity to consumers at lower rates per unit of electricity by building larger-capacity more efficient plants and by stimulating greater use of electricity within its area. To continue these financial trends, the company planned to replace an old plant by a plant with triple the capacity of its largest plant.
The company's plan as described above assumed each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) Demand for electricity within the company's area of service would increase in the future.
(B) Expenses would not rise beyond the level that could be compensated for by efficiency or volume of operation, or both.
(C) The planned plant would be sufficiently reliable in service to contribute a net financial benefit to the company as a whole.
(D) Safety measures to be instituted for the new plant would be the same as those for the plant it would replace.
(E) The tripling of capacity would not result in insuperable technological obstacles to efficiency.
Questions 12-13 are based on the following
Meteorologists say that if only they could design an accurate mathematical model of the atmosphere with all its complexities, they could forecast the weather with real precision. But this is an idle boast, immune to any evaluation, for any inadequate weather forecast would obviously be blamed on imperfections in the model.
12. Which of the following, if true, could best be used as a basis for arguing against the author's position that the meteorologists' claim cannot be evaluated?
(A) Certain unusual configurations of data can serve as the basis for precise weather forecasts even though the exact causal mechanisms are not understood.
(B) Most significant gains in the accuracy of the relevant mathematical models are accompanied by clear gains in the precision of weather forecasts.
(C) Mathematical models of the meteorological aftermath of such catastrophic events as volcanic eruptions are beginning to be constructed.
(D) Modern weather forecasts for as much as a full day ahead are broadly correct about 80 percent of the time.
(E) Meteorologists readily concede that the accurate mathematical model they are talking about is not now in their power to construct.
13. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the meteorologists' boast, aside from the doubt expressed in the passage above?
(A) The amount of energy that the Earth receives from the Sun is monitored closely and is known not to be constant.
(B) Volcanic eruptions, the combustion of fossil fuels, and several other processes that also cannot be quantified with any accuracy are known to have a significant and continuing impact on the constitution of the atmosphere.
(C) As current models of the atmosphere are improved, even small increments in complexity will mean large increases in the number of computers required for the representation of the models.
(D) Frequent and accurate data about the atmosphere collected at a large number of points both on and above the ground are a prerequisite for the construction of a good model of the atmosphere.
(E) With existing models of the atmosphere, large scale weather patterns can be predicted with greater accuracy than can relatively local weather patterns.
14. Of the countries that were the world's twenty largest exporters in 1953, four had the same share of total world exports in 1984 as in 1953. Theses countries can therefore serve as models for those countries that wish to keep their share of the global export trade stable over the years.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the suitability of those four countries as models in the sense described?
(A) Many countries wish to increase their share of world export trade, not just keep it stable.
(B) Many countries are less concerned with exports alone than with he balance between exports and imports.
(C) With respect to the mix of products each exports, the four countries are very different from each other.
(D) Of the four countries, two had a much larger, and two had a much smaller, share of total world exports in 1970 than in 1984.
(E) The exports of the four countries range from 15 percent to 75 percent of the total national output.
Questions 15-16 are based on the following
In the United States, the Postal Service has a monopoly on first-class mail, but much of what is sent first class could be transmitted electronically. Electronic transmittal operators argue that if the Postal Service were to offer electronic transmission, it would have an unfair advantage, since its electronic transmission service could be subsidized from the profits of the monopoly.
15. Which of the following, if each is true, would allay the electronic transmittal operators' fears of unfair competition?
(A) If the Postal Service were to offer electronic transmission, it could not make a profit on first-class mail.
(B) If the Postal Service were to offer electronic transmission, it would have a monopoly on that kind of service.
(C) Much of the material that is now sent by first-class mail could be delivered much faster by special package couriers, but is not sent that way because of cost.
(D) There is no economy of scale in electronic transmission--that is, the cost per transaction does not go down as more pieces of information are transmitted.
(E) Electronic transmission will never be cost-effective for material not sent by first-class mail such as newspapers and bulk mail.
16. Which of the following questions can be answered on the basis of the information in the passage above?
(A) Is the Postal Service as efficient as privately owned electric transmission services?
(B) If private operators were allowed to operate first-class mail services, would they choose to do so?
(C) Do the electronic transmittal operators believe that the Postal Service makes a profit on first-class mail?
(D) Is the Postal Service prohibited from offering electronic transmission services ?
(E) Is the Postal Service expected to have a monopoly on electronic transmission?
17. Lists of hospitals have been compiled showing which hospitals have patient death rates exceeding the national average. The data have been adjusted to allow for differences in the ages of patients.
Each of the following, if true, provides a good logical ground for hospitals to object to interpreting rank on these lists as one of the indices of the quality of hospital care EXCEPT:
(A) Rank order might indicate insignificant differences, rather than large differences, in numbers of patient deaths.
(B) Hospitals that keep patients longer are likely to have higher death rates than those that discharge patients earlier but do not record deaths of patients at home after discharge.
(C) Patients who are very old on admission to a hospital are less likely than younger patients to survive the same types of illnesses or surgical procedures.
(D) Some hospitals serve a larger proportion of low-income patients, who tend to be more seriously ill when admitted to a hospital.
(E) For-profit hospitals sometimes do not provide intensive-care units and other expensive services for very sick patients but refer or transfer such patients to other hospitals.
18. Teresa: Manned spaceflight does not have a future, since it cannot compete economically with other means of accomplishing the objectives of spaceflight.
Edward: No mode of human transportation has a better record of reliability: two accidents in twenty-five years. Thus manned spaceflight definitely has a positive future.
Which of the following is the best logical evaluation of Edward's argument as a response to Teresa's argument?
(A) It cites evidence that, if true, tends to disprove the evidence cited by Teresa in drawing her conclusion.
(B) It indicates a logical gap in the support that Teresa offers for her conclusion.
(C) It raises a consideration that outweighs the argument Teresa makes.
(D) It does not meet Teresa's point because it assumes that there is no serious impediment to transporting people into space, but this was the issue raised by Teresa.
(E) It fails to respond to Teresa's argument because it does not address the fundamental issue of whether space activities should have priority over other claims on the national budget.
19. Black Americans are, on the whole, about twice as likely as White Americans to develop high blood pressure. This likelihood also holds for westernized Black Africans when compared to White Africans.
Researchers have hypothesized that this predisposition in westernized Blacks may reflect an interaction between western high-salt diets and genes that adapted to an environmental scarcity of salt.
Which of the following statements about present-day, westernized Black Africans, if true, would most tend to confirm the researchers' hypothesis?
(A) The blood pressures of those descended from peoples situated throughout their history in Senegal and Gambia, where salt was always available, are low.
(B) The unusually high salt consumption in certain areas of Africa represents a serious health problem.
(C) Because of their blood pressure levels, most White Africans have markedly decreased their salt consumption.
(D) Blood pressures are low among the Yoruba, who, throughout their history, have been situated far inland from sources of sea salt and far south of Saharan salt mines.
(E) No significant differences in salt metabolism have been found between those people who have had salt available throughout their history and those who have not.
20. The following proposal to amend the bylaws of an organization was circulated to its members for comment.
When more than one nominee is to be named for an office, prospective nominees must consent to nomination and before giving such consent must be told who the other nominees will be.
Which of the following comments concerning the logic of the proposal is accurate if it cannot be known who the actual nominees are until prospective nominees have given their consent to be nominated?
(A) The proposal would make it possible for each of several nominees for an office to be aware of who all of the other nominees are.
(B) The proposal would widen the choice available to those choosing among the nominees.
(C) If there are several prospective nominees, the proposal would deny the last nominee equal treatment with the first.
(D)The proposal would enable a prospective nominee to withdraw from competition with a specific person without making that withdrawal known.
(E) If there is more than one prospective nominee, the proposal would make it impossible for anyone to become a nominee.
21. The imposition of quotas limiting imported steel will not help the big
American steel mills. In fact, the quotas will help " mini-mills" flourish in
the United States. Those small domestic mills will take more business from the
big Americal steel mills than would have been taken by the foreign steel mills
in the absence of quotas.
Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the claim made in the last sentence above?
(A) Quality rather than price is a major factor in determining the type of steel to be used for a particular application.
(B) Foreign steel mills have long produced grades of steel comparable in quality to the steel produced by the big American mills.
(C) American quotas on imported goods have often induced other countries to impose similar quotas on American goods.
(D) Domestic " mini-mills" consistently produce better grades of steel than do the big American mills.
(E) Domestic " mini-mills" produce low-volume, specialized types of steels that are not produced by the big American steel mills.
22. Correctly measuring the productivity of service workers is complex.
Consider, for example, postal workers: they are often said to be more productive
if more letters are delivered per postal worker. But is this really true? what
if more letters are lost or delayed per worker at the same time that more are
The objection implied above to the productivity measure described is based on doubts about the truth of which of the following statements?
(A) Postal workers are representative of service workers in general.
(B) The delivery of letters is the primary activity of the postal service.
(C) Productivity should be ascribed to categories of workers, not to individuals.
(D) The quality of services rendered can appropriately be ignored in computing productivity.
(E) The number of letters delivered is relevant to measuring the productivity of postal workers.
23. Male bowerbirds construct elaborately decorated nests, or bowers. Basing
their judgment on the fact that different local populations of bowerbirds of the
same species build bowers that exhibit different building and decorative styles,
researchers have concluded that the bowerbirds' building styles are a
culturally acquired, rather than a genetically transmitted, trait.
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the researchers?
(A) There are more common characteristics than there are differences among the bower-building styles of the local bowerbird population that has been studied most extensively
(B) Young male bowerbirds are inept at bower-building and apparently spend years watching their elders before becoming accomplished in the local bower style.
(C) The bowers of one species of bowerbird lack the towers and ornamentation characteristic of the bowers of most other species of bowerbird.
(D) Bowerbirds are found only in New Guinea and Australia, where local populations of the birds apparently seldom have contact with one another.
(E) It is well known that the song dialects of some songbirds are learned rather than transmitted genetically.
24. A greater number of newspapers are sold in Town S than in Town T.
Therefore, the citizens of Town S are better informed about major world events
than are the citizens of Town T.
Each of the following, if true, weakens the conclusion above EXCEPT:
(A) Town S has a larger population than Town T.
(B) Most citizens of Town T work in Town S and buy their newspapers there.
(C) The average citizen of Town S spends less time reading newspapers than does the average citizen of Town T.
(D) A weekly newspaper restricted to the coverage of local events is published in Town S.
(E) The average newsstand price of newspapers sold in Town S in lower than the average price of newspapers sold in Town T.
25. One analyst predicts that Hong Kong can retain its capitalist ways after
it becomes part of mainland China in 1997 as long as a capitalist Hong Kong is
useful to China; that a capitalist Hong Kong will be useful to China as long as
Hong Kong is prosperous; and that Hong Kong will remain prosperous as long as it
retains its capitalist ways.
If the predictions above are correct, which of the following further predictions can logically be derived from them?
(A) If Hong Kong fails to stay prosperous, it will no longer remain part of mainland China.
(B) If Hong Kong retains its capitalist ways until 1997, it will be allowed to do so afterward.
(C) If there is a world economic crisis after 1997, it will not adversely affect the economy of Hong Kong.
(D) Hong Kong will be prosperous after 1997
(E) The citizens of Hong Kong will have no restrictions placed on them by the government of mainland China.
Next: LSAT SAMPLE TEST #4