LSAT SAMPLE TEST #2


 

 

SECTION I

Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

1. After the national speed limit of 55 miles per hour was imposed in 1974, the number of deaths per mile driven on a highway fell abruptly as a result. Since then, however, the average speed of vehicles on highways has risen, but the number of deaths per mile driven on a highway has continued to fall.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?

(A) The speed limit alone is probably not responsible for the continued reduction in highway deaths in the years after 1974.

(B) People have been driving less since 1974.

(C) Driver-education courses have been more effective since 1974 in teaching drivers to drive safely.

(D) In recent years highway patrols have been less effective in catching drivers who speed.

(E) The change in the speed limit cannot be responsible for the abrupt decline in highway deaths in 1974.

 

2. Neighboring landholders: Air pollution from the giant aluminum refinery that has been built next to our land is killing our plants.

Company spokesperson: The refinery is not to blame, since our study shows that the damage is due to insects and fungi.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn by the company spokesperson?

(A) The study did not measure the quantity of pollutants emitted into the surrounding air by the aluminum refinery.

(B) The neighboring landholders have made no change in the way they take care of their plants.

(C) Air pollution from the refinery has changed the chemical balance in the plants' environment, allowing the harmful insects and fungi to thrive.

(D) Pollutants that are invisible and odorless are emitted into the surrounding air by the refinery.

(E) The various species of insects and fungi mentioned in the study have been occasionally found in the locality during the past hundred years.

 

3. Sales taxes tend to be regressive, affecting poor people more severely than wealthy people. When all purchases of consumer goods are taxed at a fixed percentage of the purchase price, poor people pay a larger proportion of their income in sales taxes than wealthy people do.

It can be correctly inferred on the basis of the statements above that which of the following is true?

(A) Poor people constitute a larger proportion of the taxpaying population than wealthy people do.

(B) Poor people spend a larger proportion of their income on purchases of consumer goods than wealthy people do.

(C) Wealthy people pay, on average, a larger amount of sales taxes than poor people do.

(D) The total amount spent by all poor people on purchases of consumer goods exceeds the total amount spent by all wealthy people on consumer goods.

(E) The average purchase price of consumer goods bought by wealthy people is higher than that of consumer goods bought by poor people.

 

4. Reviewing historical data, medical researchers in California found that counties with the largest number of television sets per capita have had the lowest incidence of a serious brain disease, mosquito-borne encephalitis. The researchers have concluded that people in these counties stay indoors more and thus avoid exposure to the disease.

The researchers' conclusion would be most strengthened if which of the following were true?

(A) Programs designed to control the size of disease-bearing mosquito populations have not affected the incidence of mosquito- borne encephalitis.

(B) The occupations of county residents affect their risk of exposure to mosquito-borne encephalitis more than does television-watching.

(C) The incidence of mosquito-borne encephalitis in counties with the largest number of television sets per capita is likely to decrease even further.

(D) The more time people in a county spend outdoors, the greater their awareness of the dangers of mosquito-borne encephalitis.

(E) The more television sets there are per capita in a county, the more time the average county resident spends watching television.

 

5. The city's public transportation system should be removed from the jurisdiction of the municipal government, which finds it politically impossible either to raise fares or to institute cost-saving reductions in service. If public transportation were handled by a private firm, profits would be vigorously pursued, thereby eliminating the necessity for covering operating costs with government funds.

The statements above best support the conclusion that

(A) the private firms that would handle public transportation would have experience in the transportation industry

(B) political considerations would not prevent private firms from ensuring that revenues cover operating costs

(C) private firms would receive government funding if it were needed to cover operating costs

(D) the public would approve the cost-cutting actions taken by the private firm

(E) the municipal government would not be resigned to accumulating merely enough income to cover costs

 

6. To entice customers away from competitors, Red Label supermarkets have begun offering discounts on home appliances  to customers who spend $50 or more on any shopping trip to Red Label. Red Label executives claim that the discount program has been a huge success, since cash register receipts of $50 or more are up thirty percent since the beginning of the program.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the claim of the Red Label executives?

(A) Most people who switched to Red Label after the program began spend more than $50 each time they shop at Red Label.

(B) Most people whose average grocery bill is less than $50 would not be persuaded to spend more by any discount program.

(C) Most people who received discounts on home appliances through Red Label's program will shop at Red Label after the program ends.

(D) Since the beginning of the discount program, most of the people who spend $50 or more at Red Label are people who have never before shopped there and whose average grocery bill has always been higher than $50.

(E) Almost all of the people who have begun spending $50 or more at Red Label since the discount program began are longtime customers who have increased the average amount of their shopping bills by making fewer trips.

 

7. Throughout the 1950's, there were increases in the numbers of dead birds found in agricultural areas after pesticide sprayings. Pesticide manufacturers claimed that the publicity given to bird deaths stimulated volunteers to look for dead birds, and that the increase in numbers reported was attributable to the increase in the number of people looking.

Which of the following statements, if true, would help to refute the claim of the pesticide manufacturers?

(A)The publicity given to bird deaths was largely regional and never reached national proportions.

(B) Pesticide sprayings were timed to coincide with various phases of the life cycles of the insects they destroyed.

(C)No provision was made to ensure that a dead bird would not be reported by more than one observer.

(D) Initial increases in bird deaths had been noticed by agricultural workers long before any publicity had been given to the matter.

(E) Dead birds of the same species as those found in agricultural areas had been found along coastal areas where no farming took place.

 

8. Teenagers are often priced out of the labor market by the government-mandated minimum-wage level because employers cannot afford to pay that much for extra help. Therefore, if Congress institutes a subminimum wage, a new lower legal wage for teenagers, the teenage unemployment rate, which has been rising since 1960, will no longer increase.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

(A) Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen when the minimum wage has risen.

(B) Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen even when the minimum wage remained constant.

(C) Employers often hire extra help during holiday and warm weather seasons.

(D) The teenage unemployment rate rose more quickly in the 1970's than it did in the 1960's.

(E) The teenage unemployment rate has occasionally declined in the years since 1960.

 

9. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

The computer industry's estimate that it loses millions of dollars when users illegally copy programs without paying for them is greatly exaggerated. Most of the illegal copying is done by people with no serious interest in the programs. Thus, the loss to the industry is much smaller than estimated because

(A) many users who illegally copy programs never find any use for them

(B) most of the illegally copied programs would not be purchased even if purchasing them were the only way to obtain them

(C) even if the computer industry received all the revenue it claims to be losing, it would still be experiencing financial difficulties

(D) the total market value of all illegal copies is low in comparison to the total revenue of the computer industry

(E) the number of programs that are frequently copied illegally is low in comparison to the number of programs available for sale

 

10. This year the New Hampshire Division of Company X, set a new record for annual sales by that division. This record is especially surprising since the New Hampshire Division has the smallest potential market and the lowest sales of any of Company X's divisions.

Which of the following identifies a flaw in the logical coherence of the statement above?

(A) If overall sales for Company X were sharply reduced, the New Hampshire Division's new sales record is irrelevant to the company's prosperity.

(B) Since the division is competing against its own record, the comparison of its sales record with that of other divisions is irrelevant.

(C) If this is the first year that the New Hampshire Division has been last in sales among Company X's divisions, the new record is not surprising at all.

(D) If overall sales for Company X were greater than usual, it is not surprising that the New Hampshire Division was last in sales.

(E) Since the New Hampshire Division has the smallest potential market, it is not surprising that it had the lowest sales.

 

11. Statement of a United States copper mining company: Import quotas should be imposed on the less expensive copper mined outside the country to maintain the price of copper in this country; otherwise, our companies will not be able to stay in business.

Response of a United States copper wire manufacturer: United States wire and cable manufacturers purchase about 70 percent of the copper mined in the United States. If the copper prices we pay are not at the international level, our sales will drop, and then the demand for United States copper will go down.

If the factual information presented by both companies is accurate, the best assessment of the logical relationship between the two arguments is that the wire manufacturer's argument

(A) is self-serving and irrelevant to the proposal of the mining company

(B) is circular, presupposing what it seeks to prove about the proposal of the mining company

(C) shows that the proposal of the mining company would have a negative effect on the mining company's own business

(D) fails to give a reason why the proposal of the mining company should not be put into effect to alleviate the concern of the mining company for staying in business

(E) establishes that even the mining company's business will prosper if the mining company's proposal is rejected

 

12. Y has been believed to cause Z. A new report, noting that Y and Z are often observed to be preceded by X, suggests that X, not Y, may be the cause of Z.

Which of the following further observations would best support the new report's suggestion?

(A) In cases where X occurs but Y does not, X is usually followed by Z.

(B) In cases where X occurs, followed by Y, Y is usually followed by Z.

(C) In cases where Y occurs but X does not, Y is usually followed by Z.

(D) In cases where Y occurs but Z does not, Y is usually preceded by X.

(E) In cases where Z occurs, it is usually preceded by X and Y.


13. Mr. Primm: If hospitals were private enterprises, dependent on profits for their survival, there would be no teaching hospitals, because of the intrinsically high cost of running such hospitals.

Ms. Nakai: I disagree. The medical challenges provided by teaching hospitals attract the very best physicians. This, in turn, enables those hospitals to concentrate on nonroutine cases.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Ms. Nakai's attempt to refute Mr. Primm's claim?

(A) Doctors at teaching hospitals command high salaries.

(B) Sophisticated, nonroutine medical care commands a high price.

(C) Existing teaching hospitals derive some revenue from public subsidies.

(D) The patient mortality rate at teaching hospitals is high.

(E) The modern trend among physicians is to become highly specialized.

 

14. A recent survey of all auto accident victims in Dole County found that, of the severely injured drivers and front-seat passengers, 80 percent were not wearing seat belts at the time of their accidents. This indicates that, by wearing seat belts, drivers and front-seat passengers can greatly reduce their risk of being severely injured if they are in an auto accident.

The conclusion above is not properly drawn unless which of the following is true?

(A) Of all the drivers and front-seat passengers in the survey, more than 20 percent were wearing seat belts at the time of their accidents.

(B)Considerably more than 20 percent of drivers and front-seat passengers in Dole County always wear seat belts when traveling by car.

(C) More drivers and front-seat passengers in the survey than rear-seat passengers were very severely injured.

(D) More than half of the drivers and front-seat passengers in the survey were not wearing seat belts at the time of their accidents.

(E) Most of the auto accidents reported to police in Dole County do not involve any serious injury.

 

15. Six months or so after getting a video recorder, many early buyers apparently lost interest in obtaining videos to watch on it. The trade of businesses selling and renting videos is still buoyant, because the number of homes with video recorders is still growing. But clearly, once the market for video recorders is saturated, businesses distributing videos face hard times.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above?

(A) The market for video recorders would not be considered saturated until there was one in 80 percent of homes.

(B) Among the items handled by video distributors are many films specifically produced as video features.

(C) Few of the early buyers of video recorders raised any complaints about performance aspects of the new product.

(D) The early buyers of a novel product are always people who are quick to acquire novelties, but also often as quick to tire of them.

(E) In a shrinking market, competition always intensifies and marginal businesses fail.

 

16. Advertiser: The revenue that newspapers and magazines earn by publishing advertisements allows publishers to keep the prices per copy of their publications much lower than would otherwise be possible. Therefore, consumers benefit economically from advertising.

Consumer: But who pays for the advertising that pays for low-priced newspapers and magazines? We consumers do, because advertisers pass along advertising costs to us through the higher prices they charge for their products.

Which of the following best describes how the consumer counters the advertiser's argument?

(A) By alleging something that, if true, would weaken the plausibility of the advertiser's conclusion

(B) By questioning the truth of the purportedly factual statement on which the advertiser's conclusion is based

(C) By offering an interpretation of the advertiser's opening statement that, if accurate, shows that there is an implicit contradiction in it

(D) By pointing out that the advertiser's point of view is biased

(E) By arguing that the advertiser too narrowly restricts the discussion to the effects of advertising that are economic

 

17. Mr. Lawson: We should adopt a national family policy that includes legislation requiring employers to provide paid parental leave and establishing government-sponsored day care. Such laws would decrease the stress levels of employees who have responsibility for small children. Thus, such laws would lead to happier, better-adjusted families.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?

(A) An employee's high stress level can be a cause of unhappiness and poor adjustment for his or her family.

(B) People who have responsibility for small children and who work outside the home have higher stress levels than those who do not.

(C) The goal of a national family policy is to lower the stress levels of parents.

(D) Any national family policy that is adopted would include legislation requiring employers to provide paid parental leave and establishing government-sponsored day care.

(E) Most children who have been cared for in daycare centers are happy and well adjusted.

 

18. Lark Manufacturing Company initiated a voluntary Quality Circles program for machine operators. Independent surveys of employee attitudes indicated that the machine operators participating in the program were less satisfied with their work situations after two years of the program's existence than they were at the program's start. Obviously, any workers who participate in a Quality Circles program will, as a result, become less satisfied with their jobs.

Each of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion drawn above EXCETP:

(A) The second survey occurred during a period of recession when rumors of cutbacks and layoffs at Lark Manufacturing were plentiful .

(B) The surveys also showed that those Lark machine operators who neither participated in Quality Circles nor knew anyone who did so reported the same degree of lessened satisfaction with their work situations as did the Lark machine operators who participated in Quality Circles.

(C) While participating in Quality Circles at Lark Manufacturing, machine operators exhibited two of the primary indicators of improved job satisfaction: increased productivity and decreased absenteeism.

(D) Several workers at Lark Manufacturing who had participated in Quality Circles while employed at other companies reported that, while participating in Quality Circles in their previous companies, their work satisfaction had increased.

(E) The machine operators who participated in Quality Circles reported that, when the program started, they felt that participation might improve their work situations.


Questions 19-20 are based on the following.

Blood banks will shortly start to screen all donors for NANB hepatitis. Although the new screening tests are estimated to disqualify up to 5 percent of all prospective blood donors, they will still miss two-thirds of donors carrying NANB hepatitis. Therefore, about 10 percent of actual donors will still supply NANB-contaminated blood.

 

19. The argument above depends on which of the following assumptions?

(A) Donors carrying NANB hepatitis do not, in a large percentage of cases, carry other infections for which reliable screening tests are routinely performed.

(B) Donors carrying NANB hepatitis do not, in a large percentage of cases, develop the disease themselves at any point.

(C) The estimate of the number of donors who would be disqualified by tests for NANB hepatitis is an underestimate.

(D) The incidence of NANB hepatitis is lower among the potential blood donors than it is in the population at large.

(E) The donors who will still supply NANB-contaminated blood will donate blood at the average frequency for all donors.

 

20. Which of the following inferences about the conse-quences of instituting the new tests is best supported by the passage above?

(A) The incidence of new cases of NANB hepatitis is likely to go up by 10 percent.

(B) Donations made by patients specifically for their own use are likely to become less frequent.

(C) The demand for blood from blood banks is likely to fluctuate more strongly.

(D) The blood supplies available from blood banks are likely to go down.

(E) The number of prospective first-time donors is likely to go up by 5 percent.


21. It is true that it is against international law to sell plutonium to countries that do not yet have nuclear weapons. But if United States companies do not do so, companies in other countries will.
Which of the following is most like the argument above in its logical structure?

(A) It is true that it is against the police department's policy to negotiate with kidnappers. But if the police want to prevent loss of life, they must negotiate in some cases.

(B) it is true that it is illegal to refuse to register for military service. But there is a long tradition in the United States of conscientious objection to serving in the armed forces.

(C) It is true that it is illegal for a government official to participate in a transaction in which there is an apparent conflict of interest. But if the facts are examined carefully, it will clearly be seen that there was no actual conflict of interest in the defendant's case.

(D) It is true that it is against the law to burglarize people's homes. But someone else certainly would have burglarized that house if the defendant had not done so first.

(E) It is true that company policy forbids supervisors to fire employees without two written warnings. But there have been many supervisors who have disobeyed this policy.

 

22. In recent years many cabinetmakers have been winning acclaim as artists. But since furniture must be useful, cabinetmakers must exercise their craft with an eye to the practical utility of their product. For this reason, cabinetmaking is not art.


Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reason given for that conclusion?

(A) Some furniture is made to be placed in museums, where it will not be used by anyone.

(B) Some cabinetmakers are more concerned than others with the practical utility of the products they produce.

(C) Cabinetmakers should be more concerned with the practical utility of their products than they currently are.

(D) An object is not an art object if its maker pays attention to the object's practical utility.

(E) Artists are not concerned with the monetary value of their products.

 

23. Although custom prosthetic bone replacements produced through a new computer-aided design process will cost more than twice as much as ordinary replacements, custom replacements should still be cost-effective. Not only will surgery and recovery time be reduced, but custom replacements should last longer, thereby reducing the need for further hospital stays.
Which of the following must be studied in order to evaluate the argument presented above?

(A) The amount of time a patient spends in surgery versus the amount of time spent recovering from surgery

(B) The amount by which the cost of producing custom replacements has declined with the introduction of the new technique for producing them

(C) The degree to which the use of custom replacements is likely to reduce the need for repeat surgery when compared with the use of ordinary replacements

(D) The degree to which custom replacements produced with the new technique are more carefully manufactured than are ordinary replacements

(E) The amount by which custom replacements produced with the new technique will drop in cost as the production procedures become standardized and applicable on a larger scale

 

24. Extinction is a process that can depend on a variety of ecological, geographical, and physiological variables. These variables affect different species of organisms in different ways, and should, therefore, yield a random pattern of extinctions. However, the fossil record shows that extinction occurs in a surprisingly definite pattern, with many species vanishing at the same time.
Which of the following, if true, forms the best basis for at least a partial explanation of the patterned extinctions revealed by the fossil record?

(A) Major episodes of extinction can result from widespread environmental disturbances that affect numerous different species.

(B) Certain extinction episodes selectively affect organisms with particular sets of  characteristics unique to their species.

(C) Some species become extinct because of accumulated gradual changes in their local environments.

(D) In geologically recent times, for which there is no fossil record, human intervention has changed the pattern of extinctions.

(E) Species that are widely dispersed are the least likely to become extinct.

 

25. Neither a rising standard of living nor balanced trade, by itself, establishes a country's ability to compete in the international marketplace. Both are required simultaneously since standards of living can rise because of growing trade deficits and trade can be balanced by means of a decline in a country's standard of living.

If the facts stated in the passage above are true, a proper test of a country's ability to be competitive is its ability to

(A) balance its trade while its standard of living rises

(B) balance its trade while its standard of living falls

(C) increase trade deficits while its standard of living rises

(D) decrease trade deficits while its standard of living falls

(E) keep its standard of living constant while trade deficits rise.




SECTION II

Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-7


  The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the

pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more

than two centuries. How such large creatures, which

  weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider

(5) and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the

problems of powered flight, and exactly what these

creatures were--reptiles or birds-are among the ques-

tions scientists have puzzled over.

  Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the

(10) pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls,

pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of

their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the

class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth

finger of each forelimb supported a winglike membrane.

(15) The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp

claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut

of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the

pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers

may have been employed for grasping. When a

(20) pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth

finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in

an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal's body.

The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in

(25) their overall structure and proportions. This is not sur-

prising because the design of any flying vertebrate is

subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs

and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that repre-

sents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these

(30) bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.


  Although scales typically cover reptiles, the

pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T.H. Huxley rea-

soned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-

blooded because flying implies a high rate of

(35) metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal tem-

perature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would

insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline

the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery

of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and

(40) relatively thick hairlike fossil material was the first clear

evidence that his reasoning was correct.

Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became air-

borne have led to suggestions that they launched them-

selves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees.

(45) or even by rising into light winds from the crests of

waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first

wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs' hind feet rese-

mbled a bat's and could serve as hooks by which the

animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second

(50) hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs

could not have landed in trees without damaging their

wings. The third calls for high waves to channel

updrafts. The wind that made such waves however,

might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to

(55) control their flight once airborne.


1. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists now generally agree that the

(A) enormous wingspan of the pterosaurs enabled them to fly great distances

(B) structure of the skeleton of the pterosaurs suggests a close evolutionary relationship to bats

(C) fossil remains of the pterosaurs reveal how they solved the problem of powered flight

(D) pterosaurs were reptiles

(E) pterosaurs walked on all fours


2. The author views the idea that the pterosaurs became airborne by rising into light winds created by waves as

(A) revolutionary

(B) unlikely

(C) unassailable

(D) probable

(E) outdated

 

3. According to the passage, the skeleton of a pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by the

(A) size of its wingspan

(B) presence of hollow spaces in its bones

(C) anatomic origin of its wing strut

(D) presence of hooklike projections on its hind feet

(E) location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its body


4. The ideas attributed to T.H. Huxley in the passage suggest that he would most likely agree with which of the following statements?

(A) An animal's brain size has little bearing on its ability to master complex behaviors.

(B) An animal's appearance is often influenced by environmental requirements and physical capabilities.

(C) Animals within a given family group are unlikely to change their appearance dramatically over a period of time.

(D) The origin of flight in vertebrates was an accidental development rather than the outcome of specialization or adaptation.

(E) The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not reptiles.


5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is characteristic of the pterosaurs?

(A) They were unable to fold their wings when not in use.

(B) They hung upside down from branches as bats do before flight.

(C) They flew in order to capture prey.

(D) They were an early stage in the evolution of the birds.

(E) They lived primarily in a forestlike habitat.


6.Which of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph of the passage?

(A) New evidence is introduced to support a traditional point of view.

(B) Three explanations for a phenomenon are presented, and each is disputed by means of specific information.

(C) Three hypotheses are outlined, and evidence supporting each is given.

(D) Recent discoveries are described, and their implications for future study are projected

(E) A summary of the material in the preceding paragraphs is presented, and conclusions are drawn.


7. It can be inferred from the passage that some scientists believe that pterosaurs

(A) lived near large bodies of water

(B) had sharp teeth for tearing food

(C) were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles

(D) had longer tails than many birds

(E) consumed twice their weight daily to maintain their body temperature


Questions 8-16


  How many really suffer as a result of labor mar-

ket problems? This is one of the most critical yet

contentious social policy questions. In many ways,

our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hard-

(5) ship. Unemployment does not have the same dire

consequences today as it did in the 1930's when

most of the unemployed were primary breadwin-

ners, when income and earnings were usually much

closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there

(10) were no countervailing social programs for those

failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence, the

rise of families with more than one wage earner, the

growing predominance of secondary earners among

the unemployed, and improved social welfare pro-

(15) tection have unquestionably mitigated the conse-

quences of joblessness. Earnings and income data

also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among

the millions with hourly earnings at or below the

minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority

(20) are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent

families. Most of those counted by the poverty

statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family

responsibilities which keep them out of the labor

force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an

(25) accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.

  Yet there are also many ways our social statistics

underestimate the degree of labor-market-related

hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the

millions of fully employed workers whose wages are

(30) so low that their families remain in poverty. Low

wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment

frequently interact to undermine the capacity for

self-support. Since the number experiencing jobless-

ness at some time during the year is several times

(35)the number unemployed in any month, those who

suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or

exceed average annual unemployment, even though

only a minority of the jobless in any month really

suffer. For every person counted in the monthly

(40) unemployment tallies, there is another working

part-time because of the inability to find full-time

work, or else outside the labor force but wanting a

job. Finally, income transfers in our country have

always focused on the elderly, disabled, and depen-

(45)dent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so

that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind

transfers does not necessarily mean that those fail-

ing in the labor market are adequately protected.

 As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is

(50) uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a

result of thousands or the tens of millions, and,

hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tol-

erated or must be countered by job creation and

(55) economic stimulus. There is only one area of agree-

ment in this debate---that the existing poverty,

employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate

for one their primary applications, measuring the

consequences of labor market problems.


8. Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?

(A) What causes labor market pathologies that result in suffering

(B) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring degrees of poverty

(C) Which of the currently used statistical procedures are the best for estimating the incidence of hardship that is due to unemployment

(D) Where the areas of agreement are among poverty, employment, and earnings figures

(E) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the degree of hardship caused by low wages and insufficient employment opportunities


9. The author uses "labor market problems" in lines 1-2 to refer to which of the following?

(A) The overall causes of poverty

(B) Deficiencies in the training of the work force

(C) Trade relationships among producers of goods

(D) Shortages of jobs providing adequate income

(E) Strikes and inadequate supplies of labor


10. The author contrasts the 1930's with the present in order to show that

(A) more people were unemployed in the 1930's

(B) unemployment now has less severe effects

(C) social programs are more needed now

(D) there now is a greater proportion of elderly and handicapped people among those in poverty

(E) poverty has increased since the 1930's


11.Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?

(A) Innovative programs using multiple approaches should be set up to reduce the level of unemployment.

(B) A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.

(C) New statistical indices should be developed to measure the degree to which unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.

(D) Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena that they purport to measure.

(E) The labor force should be restructured so that it corresponds to the range of job vacancies.


12.The author's purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a twelve-month period is most probably to show that

(A) there are several factors that cause the payment of low wages to some members of the labor force

(B) unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness

(C) recurrent inadequacies in the labor market can exist and can cause hardships for individual workers

(D) a majority of those who are jobless at any one time to not suffer severe hardship

(E) there are fewer individuals who are without jobs at some time during a year than would be expected on the basis of monthly unemployment figures


13. The author states that the mitigating effect of social programs involving income transfers on the income level of low-income people is often not felt by

(A) the employed poor

(B) dependent children in single-earner families

(C) workers who become disabled

(D) retired workers

(E) full-time workers who become unemployed

14. According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to over-predict the amount of economic hardship is the

(A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a group of low-wage workers

(B) possibility that earnings may be received from more than one job per worker

(C) fact that unemployment counts do not include those who work for low wages and remain poor

(D) establishment of a system of record-keeping that makes it possible to compile poverty statistics

(E) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are employed


15. The conclusion stated in lines 33-39 about the number of people who suffer as a result of forced idleness depends primarily on the point that

(A) in times of high unemployment, there are some people who do not remain unemployed for long

(B) the capacity for self-support depends on receiving moderate-to-high wages 

(C) those in forced idleness include, besides the unemployed, both underemployed part-time workers and those not actively seeking work

(D) at different times during the year, different people are unemployed

(E) many of those who are affected by unemployment are dependents of unemployed workers


16. Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of the author's argument concerning why poverty statistics cannot properly be used to show the effects of problems in the labor market?

(A) A short-term increase in the number of those in poverty can indicate a shortage of jobs because the basic number of those unable to accept employment remains approximately constant.

(B) For those who are in poverty as a result of joblessness, there are social programs available that provide a minimum standard of living.

(C) Poverty statistics do not consistently agree with earnings statistics, when each is taken as a measure of hardship resulting from unemployment.

(D) The elderly and handicapped categories include many who previously were employed in the labor market.

(E) Since the labor market is global in nature, poor workers in one country are competing with poor workers in another with respect to the level of wages and the existence of jobs.


Questions 17-25


In the eighteenth century, Japan's feudal

overlords, from the shogun to the humblest

samurai, found themselves under financial

stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to

(5) the overlords' failure to adjust to a rapidly ex-

panding economy, but the stress was also due to
factors beyond the overlords' control. Concen-

tration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted

as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in

(10) turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers.

Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness

by years of peace, encouraged to engage in

scholarship and martial exercises or to perform

administrative tasks that took little time, it is

(15) not surprising that their tastes and habits grew

expensive. Overlords' income, despite the in-

crease in rice production among their tenant

farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses.

Although shortfalls in overlords' income re-

(20) sulted almost as much from laxity among their

tax collectors (the nearly inevitable outcome of

hereditary officeholding) as from their higher

standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or

flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop

(25) in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the

city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once

in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the

shogun himself found it easy to recover.

It was difficult for individual samurai over-

(30) lords to increase their income because the

amount of rice that farmers could be made to

pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the in-

come of Japan's central government consisted in

part of taxes collected by the shogun from his

(35) huge domain, the government too was con-

strained. Therefore, the Tokugawa shoguns

began to look to other sources for revenue.

Cash profits from government-owned mines

were already on the decline because the most

(40) easily worked deposits of silver and gold had

been exhausted, although debasement of the

coinage had compensated for the loss. Opening

up new farmland was a possibility, but most of

what was suitable had already been exploited

(45) and further reclamation was technically unfeasi-

ble. Direct taxation of the samurai themselves

would be politically dangerous. This left the

shoguns only commerce as a potential source of

government income.

(50) Most of the country's wealth, or so it seemed,

was finding its way into the hands of city mer-

chants. It appeared reasonable that they should

contribute part of that revenue to ease the

shogun's burden of financing the state. A means

(55) of obtaining such revenue was soon found by

levying forced ioans, known as goyo-kin;

although these were not taxes in the strict sense,

since they were irregular in timing and arbitrary

in amount, they were high in yield. Unfortunately,

(60) they pushed up prices. Thus, regrettably, the

Tokugawa shoguns' search for solvency for the

government made it increasingly difficult for

individual Japanese who lived on fixed stipends

to make ends meet.


17. The passage is most probably an excerpt from

(A) an economic history of Japan

(B) the memoirs of a samurai warrior

(C) a modern novel about eighteenth-century Japan

(D) an essay contrasting Japanese feudalism with its Western counterpart

(E) an introduction to a collection of Japanese folktales


18. Which of the following financial situations is most analogous to the financial situation in which Japan's Tokugawa shoguns found themselves in the eighteenth century?

(A) A small business borrows heavily to invest in new equipment, but is able to pay off its debt early when it is awarded a lucrative government contract.

(B) Fire destroys a small business, but insurance covers the cost of rebuilding.

(C) A small business is turned down for a loan at a local bank because the owners have no credit history?

(D) A small business has to struggle to meet operating expenses when its profits decrease.

(E) A small business is able to cut back sharply on spending through greater commercial efficiency and thereby compensate for a loss of revenue.


19. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author toward the samurai discussed in lines 11-16?

(A) Warmly approving

(B) Mildly sympathetic

(C) Bitterly disappointed

(D) Harshly disdainful

(E) Profoundly shocked


20. According to the passage, the major reason for the financial problems experienced by Japan's feudal overlords in the eighteenth century was that

(A) spending had outdistanced income

(B) trade had fallen off

(C) profits from mining had declined

(D) the coinage had been sharply debased

(E) the samurai had concentrated in castle-towns


21.The passage implies that individual samurai did not find it easy to recover from debt for which of the following reasons?

(A) Agricultural production had increased.

(B) Taxes were irregular in timing and arbitrary in amount.

(C) The Japanese government had failed to adjust to the needs of a changing economy.

(D) The domains of samurai overlords were becoming smaller and poorer as government revenues increased.

(E) There was a limit to the amount in taxes that farmers could be made to pay.


22. The passage suggests that, in eighteenth-century Japan, the office of tax collector

(A) was a source of personal profit to the officeholder

(B) was regarded with derision by many Japanese

(C) remained within families

(D) existed only in castle-towns

(E) took up most of the officeholder's time


23. Which of the following could best be substituted for the word " This " in line 47 without changing the meaning of the passage?

(A) The search of Japan's Tokugawa shoguns for solvency

(B) The importance of commerce in feudal Japan

(C) The unfairness of the tax structure in eighteenth-century Japan

(D) The difficulty of increasing government income by other means

(E) The difficulty experienced by both individual samurai and the shogun himself in extricating themselves from debt


24. The passage implies that which of the following was the primary reason why the Tokugawa shoguns turned to city merchants for help in financing the state?

(A) A series of costly wars had depleted the national treasury.

(B) Most of the country's wealth appeared to be in city merchants' hands.

(C) Japan had suffered a series of economic reversals due to natural disasters such as floods.

(D) The merchants were already heavily indebted to the shoguns.

(E) Further reclamation of land would not have been economically advantageous.


25. According to the passage, the actions of the Tokugawa shoguns in their search for solvency for the government were regrettable because those actions

(A) raised the cost of living by pushing up prices

(B) resulted in the exhaustion of the most easily worked deposits of silver and gold

(C) were far lower in yield than had originally been anticipated

(D) did not succeed in reducing government spending

(E) acted as a deterrent to trade

 



SECTION III

Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions


1. Armtech, a temporary-employment agency, previously gave its employees 2.5 paid vacation days after each 700 hours worked. Armtech's new policy is to give its employees 5.0 paid vacation days after each 1,200 hours worked. Therefore, this new policy is more generous to Armtech employees in giving them more vacation days per hour worked than the old policy did.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(A) Most current Armtech employees approve of the company's new vacation policy.

(B) A few Armtech employees leave the company before having worked 700 hours.

(C) Most Armtech employees were not aware that the company planned to change its vacation policy until after it had already done so.

(D) A significant portion of Armtech employees stay with the company long enough to work for 1,200 hours.

(E) Armtech's new vacation policy closely matches the vacation policies of competing temporary employment agencies.


2 The global population of frogs has declined in recent years while the amount of ultraviolet radiation reaching the Earth has increased. Since the genetic material in frog eggs is harmed when exposed to ultraviolet radiation, and since the eggs themselves are not protected by shells or leathery coverings but are gelatinous, the frog population decline is probably due, at least in part, to the ultraviolet radiation increase.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest support for the argument?

(A) Even in those regions where there has been no significant increase in ultraviolet radiation, only a small proportion of the frog eggs that are laid ever hatch.

(B) In areas where there has been the least decline in frog populations, populations of species of insects that frogs eat have decreased.

(C) The eggs of frog species whose populations are declining tend to have higher concentrations of damaging pesticides than do the eggs of frog species whose populations have not declined.

(D) In many places where turtles, which lay eggs with tough, leathery coverings, share habitats with frogs, turtle populations are also in decline.

(E) Populations of frog species that hide their eggs beneath rocks or under sand have declined considerably less than have populations of frog species that do not cover their eggs.


Questions 3-8


A doctor is scheduling one appointment each with five patients--J, K, L, M, and N. The five appointments will be consecutive and are numbered 1 through 5, from earliest to latest. The doctor must schedule at least four of the patients for appointments preferred by those patients and cannot schedule any patient for an appointment unacceptable to that patient. The following is a complete list of what the patients prefer and, if they do not receive their preferences, will accept:

J prefers an appointment earlier than appointment 3, but will accept any appointment.

K prefers appointment 2, but will accept any appointment except appointment 1.

L prefers appointment 1, but will accept appointment 5.

M prefers and will accept only an appointment later than appointment 3.

N prefers and will accept only appointment 3.


3.Which of the following lists the patients in an order in which their scheduled appointments can occur, from appointment 1 through appointment 5 ?

(A) J, K, N, L, M

(B) J, M, N, K, L

(C) K, J, N, M, L

(D) L, J, K, N, M

(E) L, J, N, M, K


4.If J is scheduled for appointment 2, which of the following can be true?

(A) K is scheduled for appointment 3.

(B) K is scheduled for appointment 4.

(C) L is scheduled for appointment 4.

(D) L is scheduled for appointment 5.

(E) M is scheduled for appointment 1.


5.If L is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the following must be true?

(A) J is scheduled for appointment 1.

(B) J is scheduled for appointment 2.

(C) J is scheduled for appointment 4.

(D) K is scheduled for appointment 4.

(E) N is scheduled for appointment 5.


6.Which of the following is a complete and accurate list of patients any one of whom can be the patient scheduled for appointment 2?

(A) K

(B) J, K

(C) J, M

(D) J, K, L

(E) K, L, M


7.If M is scheduled for appointment 5, which of the following can be true of the scheduling?

(A) J's appointment is appointment 1.

(B) N's appointment is appointment 1.

(C) J's appointment is earlier than K's appointment.

(D) K's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.

(E) N's appointment is earlier than L's appointment.


8.If K's appointment is scheduled for a time later than N's appointment, which of the following must be true?

(A) J is scheduled for appointment 4.

(B) K is scheduled for appointment 5.

(C) L is scheduled for appointment 1.

(D) M is scheduled for appointment 4.

(E) N is scheduled for appointment 2.

 


Questions 9-10 are based on the following graph.

 

In January of 1990 a certain country enacted a strict new law to deter people from drunken driving. The law imposes mandatory jail sentences for anyone convicted of drunken driving.


9.Which of the following, if true about the years 1990 through 1992, most helps to explain the data illustrated in the graph?

(A) Most of the people arrested for and convicted of drunken driving were repeat offenders.

(B) Many of the people arrested for and convicted of drunken driving participated in alcohol-education programs in order to reduce their jail sentences.

(C) Juries in drunken driving cases became increasingly reluctant to convict people on whom mandatory jail sentences would be imposed.

(D) Since the law was enacted, the number of deaths attributed to drunken driving has declined significantly.

(E) The majority of the residents of the country supported the strict law to deter people from drunken driving.


10.Which of the following, if true, strengthens the claim that the changes in the ratio of arrests to convictions since the beginning of 1990 are due to an increase in the number of people arrested for drunken driving who were not drunk?

(A) Before 1990 only people driving erratically were stopped by the police on suspicion of drunken driving, but since the beginning of 1990 police have been allowed to stop drivers randomly and to arrest any driver whom they suspect of having drunk any alcohol.

(B) Since the beginning of 1990 new technology has enabled police who stop a driver to establish immediately whether the driver is drunk, whereas before 1990 police had to rely on observations of a driver's behavior to make a judgment about that driver's drunkenness.

(C) After 1990 the number of police officers assigned to patrol for drunken drivers increased only very slightly compared to the number of police officers assigned to patrol for drunken drivers in the years 1985 through 1989.

(D) In 1990 a greater number of drivers were ignorant of the laws concerning drunken driving than were ignorant of the drunken driving laws in 1989.

(E) After 1990 teenagers and young adults constituted a greater proportion of those arrested for drunken driving than in the years 1985 through 1989.


11 To improve productivity, manufacturing companies have recently begun restructuring work to produce more goods with fewer assembly-line workers, and the companies have laid off many workers as a consequence. The workers laid off have been those with the least seniority(time on the job), generally the younger workers.


The statements above, if true, most strongly support which of the following as a conclusion?

(A) The products manufactured by the companies are not undergoing design changes while the manufacturing jobs are being restructured.

(B) When assembly-line workers have made suggestions for improvements in manufacturing processes, some suggestions have been implemented, but many have not.

(C) Assembly-line workers now need increased reading and mathematical skills to do their jobs.

(D) Some of the innovations in assembly-line processes and procedures that were made to increase productivity have instead proved to be counterproductive.

(E) The manufacturing companies are increasing the average age of their assembly-line workforce while still seeking to increase production.


12.During the nineteenth century, Britain's urban population increased as its rural population diminished. A historian theorizes that, rather than industrialization's being the cause, this change resulted from a series of migrations to urban areas, each occasioned by a depression in the agrarian economy.To test this hypothesis, the historian will compare economic data with population census data.


The historian's hypothesis would be most strongly supported if which of the following were found to be true?

(A) The periods of greatest growth in the industrial economy were associated with a relatively rapid decline in the rural population.

(B) The periods of greatest weakness in the agrarian economy were associated with relatively slow growth in the population as a whole.

(C) Periods when the agrarian economy was comparatively strong and the industrial economy comparatively weak were associated with a particularly rapid decline in the rural population.

(D) Periods when the agrarian and industrial economies were both strong were associated with particularly rapid growth in the urban population.

(E) The periods of greatest strength in the agrarian economy were associated with relatively slow growth in the urban population.


Questions 13-16


On each of the three consecutive days Monday through Wednesday, exactly two employees are to staff a company's information booth. The three available employees--Feng, Gómez, and Hull--will staff the booth in accordance with the following conditions:


Gómez and Hull must each staff the booth on at least one of the days, but Feng must staff it on at least two the days.

The booth cannot be staffed by the same two employees on any two consecutive days.

If Hull staffs the booth on Monday, Gómez must be the other employee staffing the booth on Monday.


13.Which of the following can be the schedule of employees staffing the booth on the three days?

Monday    Tuesday  Wednesday

(A) Feng,Gómez Feng,Gómez    Feng,Hull

(B) Feng,Gómez Feng,Hul   Gómez,Hull

(C) Feng,Hull        Feng,Gómez   Gómez,Hull

(D) Gómez,Hull    Feng,Gómez    Gómez,Hull

(E) Gómez,Hull    Feng,Hull         Feng,Hull


14.If Gómez staffs the booth on Monday and Tuesday, which of the following must be true?

(A) Feng staffs the booth on Monday.

(B) Feng staffs the booth on Tuesday.

(C) Feng staffs the booth on Wednesday.

(D) Hull staffs the booth on Monday.

(E) Hull staffs the booth on Tuesday.


15.If Hull staffs the booth on Monday and Wednesday, which of the following must be true?

(A) Feng and Gómez staff the booth on Tuesday.

(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(C) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(D) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(E) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.


16.If Hull staffs the booth on only one of the days, which of the following can be true?

(A) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(B) Feng and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.

(C) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Monday.

(D) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Tuesday.

(E) Gómez and Hull staff the booth on Wednesday.



Questions 17-22


A science teacher is selecting projects for each of two classes from a group of exactly seven projects--R, S, T, V, X, Y, and Z. The teacher will assign projects to Class 1 and Class 2 according to the following conditions:

Each project must be assigned to exactly one class.

Four of the projects must be assigned to Class 1 and three to Class 2.

R must be assigned to Class 2.

The class to which V is assigned cannot be the same class as the one to which Y is assigned.

If V is assigned to Class 1, X must be assigned to Class 1.

If Z is assigned to Class 2, Y must be assigned to Class 1.


17.Which of the following could be the projects assigned to the two classes?

Class 1 Class 2

(A) R, V, X, Y S, T, Z

(B) S, T, V, Z  R, X, Y

(C) S, T, X, Y R, V, Z

(D) S, T, X, Z R, V, Y

(E) S, V, X, Y R, T, Z


18.If X is assigned to Class 2, which of the following must be true?

(A) R is assigned to Class 1.

(B) S is assigned to Class 2.

(C) T is assigned to Class 2.

(D) Y is assigned to Class 1.

(E) Z is assigned to Class 2.


19.If Z is assigned to Class 2, which of the following must be true?

(A) S is assigned to Class 2.

(B) T is assigned to Class 2.

(C) V is assigned to Class 1.

(D) X is assigned to Class 1.

(E) Y is assigned to Class 2.


20.If Y is assigned to Class 2, any of the following could be assigned together to one of the classes EXCEPT

(A) R and T

(B) S and T

(C) S and Y

(D) T and Z

(E) X and Z


21.If T is assigned to the same class as V, which of the following must be assigned to the same class as each other?

(A) R and T

(B) S and X

(C) S and Y

(D) X and Y

(E) Y and Z


22.If V is assigned to a different class from Z, which of the following must be true?

(A) S is assigned to Class 1.

(B) S is assigned to Class 2.

(C) T is assigned to Class 2.

(D) V is assigned to Class 2.

(E) X is assigned to Class 1.


23 Politician: Each year, small businesses create more jobs than do large established businesses. Therefore, in order to reduce unemployment in the long term, we should provide incentives for starting small businesses rather than for expanding established large businesses.


Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the politician's argument?

(A) In general, people employed by small businesses report higher job satisfaction than do people employed by large businesses.

(B) Among the currently unemployed are many people with sufficient job skills to perform the jobs that small businesses would create.

(C) Providing an effective incentive for starting a business generally costs significantly less than providing an effective incentive for expanding a large business.

(D) A high proportion of small businesses fail within three years of starting because of their owners' inexperience.

(E) The average large business contributes more money to politicians' campaign funds than the average small business does.


24 In the workplace, influenza is typically spread by infected individuals to others with whom they work in close quarters. A new medication that suppresses the symptoms of influenza therefore will actually increase the number of influenza cases, because this medication will allow people who would otherwise be home in bed to return to work while infected.


Which of the following, if true, most seriously challenges the prediction?

(A) Coughing, a symptom of influenza that the new medication suppresses, is a primary mechanism in the spread of this illness.

(B) Some medications that are used to suppress symptoms of influenza are also used by many people to treat symptoms that are caused not by influenza but by other illnesses.

(C) Many workers who now remain at home when infected with influenza do so because the symptoms of influenza prevent them from performing their jobs effectively.

(D) Most adults who are immunized against influenza in order to avoid being infected are over 65 years old and retired and thus do not work outside the home.

(E) Symptoms of an illness are often the body's means of curing itself of the illness, and therefore suppression of symptoms can prolong the illness that causes them.


25 Editorial:

Critics of nuclear power complain about the allegedly serious harm that might result from continued operation of existing nuclear power plants. But such concerns do not justify closing these plants;after all, their operation has caused no more harm than that caused by pollution generated by coal-and oil-burning power plants, the most important other sources of energy.


Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

(A) Existing nuclear power plants should be closed only if it can be conclusively demonstrated that their continued operation is likely to cause harm more serious than the harm their operation has already caused.

(B) Closing existing nuclear power plants would require greatly increased reliance on coal-and oil-burning power plants.

(C) The harm that has resulted from operation of existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has been significant.

(D) The harm that a nuclear power plant is likely to cause as it continues to operate can be reliably predicted from the past history of nuclear power plants.

(E) The only harm that has resulted from operation of existing coal-and oil-burning power plants has resulted from the pollution generated by these plants.




SECTION IV

Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions


Questions 1-7


In 1896 a Georgia couple suing for damages in the

accidental death of their two year old was told that since

the child had made no real economic contribution to the

family, there was no liability for damages. In contrast,

(5) less than a century later, in 1979, the parents of a three

year old sued in New York for accidental-death damages

and won an award of $750,000.

  The transformation in social values implicit in juxta-

posing these two incidents is the subject of Viviana

(10) Zelizer's excellent book, Pricing the Priceless Child.

During the nineteenth century, she argues, the concept

of the " useful" child who contributed to the family

economy gave way gradually to the present-day notion

of the " useless" child who, though producing no income

(15) for, and indeed extremely costly to, its parents, is yet

considered emotionally " priceless." Well established

among segments of the middle and upper classes by the

mid-1800's, this new view of childhood spread through-

out society in the iate-nineteenth and early-twentieth

(20) centuries as reformers introduced child-labor regulations

and compulsory education laws predicated in part on the

assumption that a child's emotional value made child

labor taboo.

For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were

(25) many and complex. The gradual erosion of children's

productive value in a maturing industrial economy,

the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child

mortality, and the development of the companionate

family (a family in which members were united by

(30) explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors

critical in changing the assessment of children's worth.

Yet " expulsion of children from the ‘cash nexus,'...

although clearly shaped by profound changes in the

economic, occupational, and family structures," Zelizer

(35) maintains. " was also part of a cultural process ‘of sacral-

ization' of children's lives. " Protecting children from the

crass business world became enormously important for

late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she

suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what

(40) they perceived as the relentless corruption of human

values by the marketplace.

In stressing the cultural determinants of a child's

worth. Zelizer takes issue with practitioners of the new

" sociological economics," who have analyzed such tradi-

(45) tionally sociological topics as crime, marriage, educa-

tion, and health solely in terms of their economic deter-

minants. Allowing only a small role for cultural forces

in the form of individual " preferences," these sociologists

tend to view all human behavior as directed primarily by

(50) the principle of maximizing economic gain. Zelizer is

highly critical of this approach, and emphasizes instead

the opposite phenomenon: the power of social values to

transform price. As children became more valuable in

emotional terms, she argues, their " exchange" or " sur-

(55) render" value on the market, that is, the conversion of

their intangible worth into cash terms, became much

greater.


1. It can be inferred from the passage that accidental-death damage awards in America during the nineteenth century tended to be based principally on the

(A) earnings of the person at time of death

(B) wealth of the party causing the death

(C) degree of culpability of the party causing the death

(D) amount of money that had been spent on the person killed

(E) amount of suffering endured by the family of the person killed


 2. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 1800's children were generally regarded by their families as individuals who

(A) needed enormous amounts of security and affection

(B) required constant supervision while working

(C) were important to the economic well-being of a family

(D) were unsuited to spending long hours in school

(E) were financial burdens assumed for the good of society


 3. Which of the following alternative explanations of the change in the cash value of children would be most likely to be put forward by sociological economists as they are described in the passage?

(A) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because parents began to increase their emotional investment in the upbringing of their children.

(B) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because their expected earnings over the course of a lifetime increased greatly.

(C) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because the spread of humanitarian ideals resulted in a wholesale reappraisal of the worth of an individual

(D) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because compulsory education laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs, of available child labor.

(E) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because of changes in the way negligence law assessed damages in accidental-death cases.


4. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) review the literature in a new academic subfield

(B) present the central thesis of a recent book

(C) contrast two approaches to analyzing historical change

(D) refute a traditional explanation of a social phenomenon

(E) encourage further work on a neglected historical topic


5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following statements was true of American families over the course of the nineteenth century?

(A) The average size of families grew considerably

(B) The percentage of families involved in industrial work declined dramatically.

(C) Family members became more emotionally bonded to one another.

(D) Family members spent an increasing amount of time working with each other.

(E) Family members became more economically dependent on each other.


6. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important influences in changing the assessment of children's worth EXCEPT changes in

(A) the mortality rate

(B) the nature of industry

(C) the nature of the family

(D) attitudes toward reform movements

(E) attitudes toward the marketplace


7.Which of the following would be most consistent with the practices of sociological economics as these  practices are described in the passage?

(A) Arguing that most health-care professionals enter the field because they believe it to be the most socially useful of any occupation

(B) Arguing that most college students choose majors that they believe will lead to the most highly paid jobs available to them

(C) Arguing that most decisions about marriage and divorce are based on rational assessments of the likelihood that each partner will remain committed to the relationship

(D) Analyzing changes in the number of people enrolled in colleges and universities as a function of changes in the economic health of these institutions 

(E) Analyzing changes in the ages at which people get married as a function of a change in the average number of years that young people have lived away from their parents


Questions 8-16


Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector

 clerical workers, most of whom are women, were some-

what limited. The factors favoring unionization drives

seem to have been either the presence of large numbers

(5) of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the

effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or

two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively

easy, Receptivity to unionization on the workers, part

was also a consideration, but when there were large

(10) numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only

unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multioccupa-

tional unions would often try to organize them regard-

less of the workers' initial receptivity. The strategic

reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politi-

(15) cians and administrators might play off unionized

against nonunionized workers, and, second, on the

conviction that a fully unionized public work force

meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the

legislature. In localities where clerical workers were few

(20) in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and

expressed no interest in being organized, unions more

often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.

But since the mid-1970's, a different strategy has

emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical

(25) workers were represented by a labor organization,

compared with 46 percent of government professionals,

44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and

41 percent of government service workers, Since then,

however, the biggest increases in public-sector unioniza-

(30) tion have been among clerical workers. Between 1977

and 1980, the number of unionized government workers

in blue-collar and service occupations increased only

about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations

the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers

(35) in particular, the increase was 22 percent.

  What accounts for this upsurge in unionization

among clerical workers? First, more women have entered

the work force in the past few years, and more of them

plan to remain working until retirement age. Conse-

(40) quently, they are probably more concerned than their

predecessors were about job security and economic bene-

fits. Also, the women's movement has succeeded in legit-

imizing the economic and political activism of women on

their own behalf, thereby producing a more positive atti-

(45) tude toward unions. The absence of any comparable

increase in unionization among private-sector clerical

workers, however, identifies the primary catalyst-the

structural change in the multioccupational public-sector

 unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the occu-

(50) pational distribution in these unions has been steadily

shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predomi-

nantly white-collar. Because there are far more women

in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of

female members has accompanied the occupational shift

(55) and has altered union policy-making in favor of orga-

nizing women and addressing women's issues.


8. According to the passage, the public-sector workers who were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were

(A) professionals

(B) managers

(C) clerical workers

(D) service workers

(E) blue-collar workers


9. The author cites union efforts to achieve a fully unionized work force (line 13-19) in order to account for why

(A) politicians might try to oppose public-sector union organizing

(B) public-sector unions have recently focused on organizing women

(C) early organizing efforts often focused on areas where there were large numbers of workers

(D) union efforts with regard to public-sector clerical workers increased dramatically after 1975

(E) unions sometimes tried to organize workers regardless of the workers' initial interest in unionization


10. The author's claim that, since the mid-1970's, a new strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-sector clerical workers (line 23 ) would be strengthened if the author

(A) described more fully the attitudes of clerical workers toward labor unions

(B) compared the organizing strategies employed by private-sector unions with those of public-sector unions

(C) explained why politicians and administrators sometimes oppose unionization of clerical workers

(D) indicated that the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers was increasing even before the mid-1970's

(E) showed that the factors that favored unionization drives among these workers prior to 1975 have decreased in importance


11. According to the passage, in the period prior to 1975, each of the following considerations helped determine whether a union would attempt to organize a certain group of clerical workers EXCEPT

(A) the number of clerical workers in that group

(B) the number of women among the clerical workers in that group

(C) whether the clerical workers in that area were concentrated in one workplace or scattered over several workplaces

(D) the degree to which the clerical workers in that group were interested in unionization

(E) whether all the other workers in the same jurisdiction as that group of clerical workers were unionized


12. The author states that which of the following is a consequence of the women's movement of recent years?    

(A) An increase in the number of women entering the work force

(B) A structural change in multioccupational public-sector unions

(C) A more positive attitude on the part of women toward unions
  (D) An increase in the proportion of clerical workers that are women

(E) An increase in the number of women in administrative positions

13. The main concern of the passage is to

(A) advocate particular strategies for future efforts to organize certain workers into labor unions

(B) explain differences in the unionized proportions of various groups of public-sector workers

(C) evaluate the effectiveness of certain kinds of labor unions that represent public-sector workers

(D) analyzed and explain an increase in unionization among a certain category of workers

(E) describe and distinguish strategies appropriate to organizing different categories of workers


14. The author implies that if the increase in the number of women in the work force and the impact of the women's movement were the main causes of the rise in unionization of public-sector clerical workers, then

(A) more women would hold administrative positions in unions

(B) more women who hold political offices would have positive attitudes toward labor unions

(C) there would be an equivalent rise in unionization of private-sector clerical workers

(D) unions would have shown more interest than they have in organizing women

(E) the increase in the number of unionized public-sector clerical workers would have been greater than it has been


15. The author suggests that it would be disadvantageous to a union if

(A) many workers in the locality were not unionized

(B) the union contributed to political campaigns

(C) the union included only public-sector workers

(D) the union included workers from several jurisdictions

(E) the union included members from only a few occupations


16. The author implies that, in comparison with working women today, women working in the years prior to the mid-1970's showed a greater tendency to

(A) prefer smaller workplaces

(B) express a positive attitude toward labor unions

(C) maximize job security and economic benefits

(D) side with administrators in labor disputes

(E) quit working prior of retirement age


Questions 17-25


Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century

that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth's

orbit around the Sun. For sometime this theory was

considered untestable, largely because there was no suffi-

(5) ciently precise chronology of the ice ages with which

the orbital variations could be matched.

To establish such a chronology it is necessary to

determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed

at various times in the Earth's past. A recent discovery

(10) makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice

volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio

of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sedi-

ments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but

a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the

(15) heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the conti-

nental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of

water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually

return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left

behid when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces,

(20) the remaining ocean water becomes progressively

enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can

be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the

period, because these sediments are composed of calcium

carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were

(25) constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the sur-

rounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen

16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice

there was when the sediment was laid down.

As an indicator of shifts in the Earth's climate, the

(30) isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global

record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope

ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different

continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous

record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of

(35) these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated

with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to

establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated

isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global ice

volume over the past several hundred thousand years

(40) have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every

100,000 years. These data have established a strong

connection between variations in the Earth's orbit and

the periodicity of the ice ages.

However, it is important to note that other factors,

(45) such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount

of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have

affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch

theory is that it is testable: changes in the Earth's orbit

can be calculated and dated by applying Newton's laws

(50) of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the

bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information

about other possible factors affecting global climate does

not make them unimportant.


17. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in

(A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method

(B) introducing a new research method that calls an accepted theory into question

(C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from the application of a new scientific method

(D) presenting a theory and describing a new method to test that theory

(E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted theory


18. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements about the Milankovitch theory?

(A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages.

(B) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation for the ice ages, despite recent research findings.

(C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further research on volcanic activity is done.

(D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the only one, for the ice ages.

(E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages, although it has opened up promising possibilities for future research.


19. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful to researchers if which of the following were true?

(A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen predominated at certain times.

(B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record taken from rocks on land.

(C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every 100,000 years.

(D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent with those found in fresh water.

(E) It stretched back for only a million years.


20. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments?

(A) They indicate that sediments found during an ice age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments formed at other times.

(B) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks on land in determining the volume of land ice.

(C) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of land ice that was present when the sediment was laid down.

(D) They are more unpredictable during an ice age than in other climatic conditions.

(E) They can be used to determine atmospheric conditions at various times in the past.


21. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation formed from evaporated ocean water has

(A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water

(B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water

(C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in continental ice sheets

(D) a different isotopic composition than has precipitation formed from water on land

(E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed from fresh water


22. According to the passage, which of the following is (are) true of the ice ages?

  I. The last ice age occurred about 25,000 years ago.

  II. Ice ages have lasted about 10,000 years for at least the last several hundred thousand years.

  III. Ice ages have occurred about every 100,000 years for at least the last several hundred thousand years.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and only

(E) I, II and III


23. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium carbonate shells

(A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks

(B) are less common in sediments formed during an ice age

(C) are found only in areas that were once covered by land ice

(D) contain radioactive material that can be used to determine a sediment's isotopic composition

(E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the time the shells were formed


24. The purpose of the last paragraph of the passage is to

(A) offer a note of caution

(B) introduce new evidence

(C) present two recent discoveries

(D) summarize material in the preceding paragraphs

(E) offer two explanations for a phenomenon


25. According to the passage, one advantage of studying the isotope record of ocean sediments is that it

(A) corresponds with the record of ice volume taken from rocks on land

(B) shows little variation in isotope ratios when samples are taken from different continental locations

(C) corresponds with predictions already made by climatologists and experts in other fields

(D) confirms the record of ice volume initially established by analyzing variations in volcanic emissions

(E) provides data that can be used to substantiate records concerning variations in the amount of sunlight received by the Earth

 


Answers

SECTION I

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. E

5. B

6. E

7. D

8. B

9. B

10. B

11. C

12. A

13. B

14. A

15. D

16. A

17. A

18. E

19. A

20. D

21. D

22. D

23. C

24. A

25. A

SECTION II

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. A

6. B

7. A

8. E

9. D

10. B

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. E

15. D

16. A

17. A

18. D

19. B

20. A

21. E

22. C

23. D

24. B

25. A

SECTION III

1. D

2. E

3. E

4. B

5. A

6. B

7. C

8. C

9. C

10. A

11. E

12. E

13. B

14. C

15. A

16. D

17. C

18. D

19. D

20. B

21. C

22. D

23. D

24. A

25. D

SECTION IV

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. B

8. A

9. E

10. E

11. B

12. C

13. D

14. C

15. A

16. E

17. D

18. D

19. B

20. C

21. B

22. C

23. E

24. A

25. B


Next: LSAT SAMPLE TEST #3