Free LSAT Practice Tests: Full-Length with Answers


  1. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #1 (Answers)
  2. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #2 (Answers)
  3. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #3 (Answers)
  4. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #4 (Answers)
  5. LSAT SAMPLE TEST #5 (Answers)

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Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-6

A newsstand will display exactly one copy each of six different magazines--M, O, P, S, T, and V--in a single row on a rack. Each magazine will occupy exactly one of the six positions, numbered consecutively 1 through 6.

The magazines must be displayed in accordance with the following rules:

Either P or else T occupies position 1.

Either S or else T occupies position 6.

M and O, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions.

V and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions.


1.Which of the following is an order in which the six magazines can be arranged, from position 1 through position 6?

(A) M, O, P, S, V, T

(B) P, O, S, M, V, T

(C) P, V, T, O, M, S

(D) P, V, T, S, O, M

(E) T, P, V, M, O, S


2.If P occupies position 3, which of the following must be true?

(A) M occupies position 4.

(B) O occupies position 2.

(C) S occupies position 5.

(D) T occupies position 6.

(E) V occupies position 2.

3.If O and T, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, then T can be in position

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 6


4.Which of the following can be true?

(A) M occupies position 4 and P occupies position 5.

(B) P occupies position 4 and V occupies position 5.

(C) S occupies position 2 and P occupies position 3.

(D) P occupies position 2.

(E) S occupies position 5.

5. If V occupies position 4, then T must occupy the position that is numbered exactly one lower than the position occupied by

(A) M

(B) O

(C) P

(D) S

(E) V


6.If S and V, not necessarily in that order, occupy consecutively numbered positions, which of the following must be true?

(A) M occupies position 4.

(B) O occupies position 2.

(C) P occupies position 1.

(D) S occupies position 6.

(E) T occupies position 6.


7. Patel: Although enrollment in the region's high school has been decreasing for several years, enrollment at the elementary school has grown considerably. Therefore, the regional school board proposes building a new elementary school.

Quintero: Another solution would be to convert some high school classrooms temporarily into classrooms for elementary school students.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to support Quintero's alternative proposal?

(A) Some rooms at the high school cannot be converted into rooms suitable for the use of elementary school students.

(B) The cost of building a high school is higher than the cost of building an elementary school.

(C) Although the birth rate has not increased, the number of families sending their children to the region's high school has increased markedly.

(D) A high school atmosphere could jeopardize the safety and self-confidence of elementary school students.

(E) Even before the region's high school population began to decrease, several high school classrooms rarely needed to be used.


Question 8 is based on the following graph

8.Which of the following, if true, most helps explain the difference in the rates of decline between 1980 and 1990 in population of puffins and arctic terns, two kinds of seabirds for which sand eels serve as a primary source of food?

(A) Puffins switched in part from their preferred food of sand eels to rockfish and other fish, but arctic terns did not.

(B) The marked decline in the populations of puffins and arctic terns that occurred on Alair Island did not occur on other similar islands nearby, where there are substantial populations of both species.

(C) The decline in sand eels was due to changes in environmental conditions that affected the reproduction of eels rather than to overfishing by people.

(D) The main diet of puffin and arctic tern chicks on Alair Island in 1980 consisted of young sand eels.

(E) Unusual severe weather that disrupted the breeding cycle of the sand eels of Alair Island in 1989 also damaged the nests of puffins but not those of arctic terns.


9. Peter: More than ever before in Risland, college graduates with science degrees are accepting permanent jobs in other fields. That just goes to show that scientists in Risland are not being paid enough.

Lila:  No, it does not. These graduates are not working in science for the simple reason that there are not enough jobs in science in Risland to employ all of these graduates.

Which of the following, if true in Risland, would most undermine the reasoning in Peter's argument?

(A) The college graduates with science degrees who are not working in science are currently earning lower salaries than they would earn as scientists.

(B) Fewer college students than ever before are receiving degrees in science.

(C) The number of jobs in science has steadily risen in the last decade.

(D) A significant number of college graduates with science degrees worked at low-paying jobs while they were in college.

(E) Every year some recent college graduates with science degrees accept permanent jobs in nonscientific fields.


Questions 10-15

Exactly six lectures will be given one at a time at a one-day conference. Two of the lectures--S and T--will be given by resident speakers, the other four--W, X, Y, and Z--will be given by visiting speakers. At least two but no more than four of the lectures will be given before lunch; the remaining lectures will be given after lunch. The following conditions must be observed:

 S will be the fourth lecture.

 Exactly one of the lectures by a resident will be given before lunch.

 Y will be given at some time before T is given.

 If W is given before lunch, Y will be given after lunch.


10.Which of the following can be the order of lectures and lunch at the conference?

(A) W, X, Lunch, Y, S, T, Z

(B) X, Y, T, Lunch, S, Z, W

(C) Y, T, Lunch, S, W, X, Z

(D) Z, T, W, S, Lunch, Y, X

(E) Z, W, Y, S, Lunch, X, T


11.If exactly two lectures are given before lunch, they must be

(A) X and T

(B) Y and T

(C) Z and T

(D) Z and W

(E) Z and Y


12.If exactly three lectures, including Y and Z, are given before lunch, which of the following can be true?

(A) T is the second lecture.

(B) T is the fifth lecture.

(C) W is the third lecture.

(D) X is the first lecture.

(E) X is the third lecture.


13.If T is the sixth lecture, which of the following must be true?

(A) X is the first lecture.

(B) X is the second lecture.

(C) Exactly two lectures are given before lunch.

(D) Exactly three lectures are given before lunch.

(E) Exactly four lectures are given before lunch.


14.If S and Z are both given after lunch, which of the following must be true?

(A) X is given before lunch.

(B) X is given after lunch.

(C) Y is given before lunch.

(D) T is the third lecture.

(E) Z is the fifth lecture.


15.Which of the following lectures CANNOT be given

immediately before lunch?

(A) S

(B) T

(C) X

(D) Y

(E) Z


Questions 16-22

A circus has seven fenced enclosures, numbered 1 through 7, for two animals: a lion and a tiger. Each enclosure is connected to adjacent enclosures by interior gates. There are exactly eight such gates, each connecting one enclosure to exactly one other enclosure: enclosure 1 is connected to enclosures 2, 3 and 4; enclosure 3 to enclosures 1, 2, 4, and 5; and enclosure 5 to enclosures 3, 6, and 7. These gates provide the only connections between enclosures. Occasionally a trainer moves the animals. Taking either animals from one enclosure to an adjacent enclosure through a gate is called a " transfer."  The following conditions are strictly observed:

The two animals cannot be together in any enclosure or gate.

Transfers cannot occur simultaneously

In moving either one animal or both to a specified enclosure or enclosures, the minimum number of transfers needed to achieve the specified result are used.


16.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7, the tiger could be in which of the following enclosures when all of the transfers have been completed?

(A) 1

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 6


17.If the tiger is in enclosure 5 and the lion is in enclosure 3, moving the tiger to which of the following enclosures requires exactly two transfers?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 6

(E) 7


18.If the lion is in enclosure 6 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 7 and the tiger to enclosure 6, then which of the following must be true?

(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 at some time during the move.

(B) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 twice.

(C) One of the two animals is transferred to enclosure 3 twice.

(D) Three transfers to enclosure 5 are made.

(E) At least one transfer is made to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.


19.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 4, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 5 and the tiger to enclosure 7, then exactly how many transfers must be made?

(A) Four

(B) Five

(C) Six

(D) Seven

(E) Eight


20.If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 7, and the lion is to be transferred to enclosure 3 and the tiger to enclosure 1, then which of the following CANNOT be true?

(A) The lion is transferred to enclosure 2 in the first transfer.

(B) The lion is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.

(C) The lion is transferred to enclosure 4 in the second transfer.

(D) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 5 in the first transfer.

(E) The tiger is transferred to enclosure 3 in the second transfer.


21. If the lion is in enclosure 1 and the tiger is in enclosure 3, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 5, then the second transfer could be a transfer of the

(A) lion to enclosure 2

(B) lion to enclosure 5

(C) tiger to enclosure 4

(D) tiger to enclosure 5

(E) tiger to enclosure 7


22.If the lion is in enclosure 3 and the tiger is in enclosure 6, and the lion is to be moved to enclosure 6 and the tiger to enclosure 3, then which of the following must be true?

(A) Exactly five enclosures are used in the move

(B) One animal is transferred exactly twice as many times as the other animal.

(C) All of the transfers of the lion are completed before any transfer of the tiger occurs.

(D) At one point one of the animals is transferred to either enclosure 2 or enclosure 4.

(E) At one point neither the lion nor the tiger is in enclosure 3, enclosure 5, or enclosure 6.


23.Counselor: Every year a popular newsmagazine publishes a list of United States colleges, ranking them according to an overall numerical score that is a composite of ratings according to several criteria. However, the overall scores generally should not be used by students as the basis for deciding to which colleges to apply.


Which of the following, if true, most helps to justify the counselor's recommendation?

(A) The vast majority of people who purchase the magazine in which the list appears are not college-bound students.

(B) Colleges that are ranked highest in the magazine's list use this fact in advertisements aimed at attracting students.

(C) The rankings seldom change from one year to the next.

(D) The significance that particular criteria have for any two students is likely to differ according to the students' differing needs.

(E) Some college students who are pleased with their schools considered the magazine's rankings before deciding which college to attend.


24. A thorough search of Edgar Allan Poe's correspondence has turned up not a single letter in which he mentions his reputed morphine addiction. On the basis of this evidence it is safe to say that Poe's reputation for having been a morphine addict is undeserved and that reports of his supposed addiction are untrue.


Which of the following is assumed by the argument above?

(A) Reports claiming that Poe was addicted to morphine did not begin to circulate until after his death.

(B) None of the reports of Poe's supposed morphine addiction can be traced to individuals who actually knew Poe.

(C) Poe's income from writing would not have been sufficient to support a morphine addiction.

(D) Poe would have been unable to carry on an extensive correspondence while under the influence of morphine.

(E) Fear of the consequences would not have prevented Poe from indicating in his correspondence that he was addicted to morphine.


25. Adelle: The government's program to reduce the unemployment rate in the province of Carthena by encouraging job creation has failed, since the rate there has not changed appreciably since the program began a year ago.

  Fran: But the unemployment rate in Carthena had been rising for three years before the program began, so the program is helping.


Which of the following, if true, most strongly counters Fran's objection to Adelle's argument?

(A) The government is advised by expert economists, some of whom specialize in employment issues.

(B) The unemployment rate in the province of Carthena has historically been higher than that of the country as a whole.

(C) The current government was elected by a wide margin, because of its promises to reduce the unemployment rate in Carthena.

(D) Around the time the government program began, large numbers of unemployed Carthena residents began leaving the province to look for work elsewhere.

(E) The unemployment rate in Carthena had been relatively stable until shortly before the current government took office.



Time – 35 minutes

20 Questions

1. Nearly one in three subscribers to Financial Forecaster is a millionaire, and over half are in top management. Shouldn’t you subscribe to Financial Forecaster now?

A reader who is neither a millionaire nor in top manage­ment would be most likely to act in accordance with the advertisement’s suggestion if he or she drew which of the following questionable conclusions invited by the advertisement?

(A) Among finance-related periodicals. Financial Forecaster provides the most detailed financial information.

(B) Top managers cannot do their jobs properly without reading Financial Forecaster.

(C) The advertisement is placed where those who will be likely to read it are millionaires.

(D) The subscribers mentioned were helped to become millionaires or join top management by reading Financial Forecaster.

(E) Only those who will in fact become millionaires, or at least top managers, will read the advertisement.


Questions 2-3 are based on the following.

Contrary to the charges made by some of its opponents, the provisions of the new deficit-reduction law for indiscriminate cuts in the federal budget are justified. Opponents should remember that the New Deal pulled this country out of great economic troubles even though some of its programs were later found to be unconstitutional.


2. The author’s method of attacking the charges of certain opponents of the new deficit-reduction law is to

(A) attack the character of the opponents rather than their claim

(B) imply an analogy between the law and some New Deal programs

(C) point out that the opponents’ claims imply a dilemma

(D) show that the opponents’ reasoning leads to an absurd conclusion

(E) show that the New Deal also called for indiscriminate cuts in the federal budget


3. The opponents could effectively defend their position against the author’s strategy by pointing out that

(A) the expertise of those opposing the law is outstanding

(B) the lack of justification for the new law does not imply that those who drew it up were either inept or immoral

(C) the practical application of the new law will not entail indiscriminate budget cuts

(D) economic troubles present at the time of the New Deal were equal in severity to those that have led to the present law

(E) the fact that certain flawed programs or laws have improved the economy does not prove that every such program can do so


4. In Millington, a city of 50,000 people, Mercedes Pedrosa, a realtor, calculated that a family with Millington’s median family income, $28,000 a year, could afford to buy Millington’s median-priced $77,000 house. This calculation was based on an 11.2 percent mortgage interest rate and on the realtor’s assumption that a family could only afford to pay up to 25 percent of its income for housing.

Which of the following corrections of a figure appearing in the passage above, if it were the only correction that needed to be made, would yield a new calculation showing that even incomes below the median family income would enable families in Millington to afford Millington’s median-priced house?

(A) Millington’s total population was 45,000 people.

(B) Millington’s median annual family income was $27,000

(C) Millington’s median-priced house cost $80,000

(D) The rate at which people in Millington had to pay mortgage interest was only 10 percent.

(E) Families in Millington could only afford to pay up to 22 percent of their annual income for housing.


5. Psychological research indicates that college hockey and football players are more quickly moved to hostility and aggression than are college athletes in noncontact sports such as swimming. But the researchers’ conclusion--that contact sports encourage and teach participants to be hostile and aggressive--is untenable. The football and hockey players were probably more hostile and aggressive to start with than the swimmers.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the psychological researchers?

(A) The football and hockey players became more hostile and aggressive during the season and remained so during the off-season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness among the swimmers.

(B) The football and hockey players, but not the swimmers, were aware at the start of the experiment that they were being tested for aggressiveness.

(C) The same psychological research indicated that the football and hockey players had a great respect for cooperation and team play, whereas the swimmers were most concerned with excelling as individual competitors.

(D) The research studies were designed to include no college athletes who participated in both contact and noncontact sports.

(E) Throughout the United States, more incidents of fan violence occur at baseball games than occur at hockey or football games.


6.Ross: The profitability of Company X, restored to private ownership five years ago, is clear evidence that businesses will always fare better under private than under public ownership.

Julia: Wrong. A close look at the records shows that X has been profitable since the appointment of a first-class manager, which happened while X was still in the pubic sector.

Which of the following best describes the weak point in Ross’s claim on which Julia’s response focuses?

(A) The evidence Ross cites comes from only a single observed case, that of Company X.

(B) The profitability of Company X might be only temporary.

(C) Ross’s statement leaves open the possibility that the cause he cites came after the effect he attributes to it.

(D) No mention is made of companies that are partly government owned and partly privately owned.

(E) No exact figures are given for the current profits of Company X.


7. Stronger patent laws are needed to protect inventions from being pirated. With that protection, manufacturers would be encouraged to invest in the development of new products and technologies. Such investment frequently results in an increase in a manufacturer’s productivity.

Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn from the information above?

(A) Stronger patent laws tend to benefit financial institutions as well as manufacturers.

(B) Increased productivity in manufacturing is likely to be accompanied by the creation of more manufacturing jobs.

(C) Manufacturers will decrease investment in the development of new products and technologies unless there are stronger patent laws.

(D) The weakness of current patent laws has been a cause of economic recession.

(E) Stronger patent laws would stimulate improvements in productivity for many manufacturers.


8. Which of the following best completes the passage below?

At large amusement parks, live shows are used very deliberately to influence crowd movements. Lunchtime performances relieve the pressure on a park’s restaurants. Evening performances have a rather different purpose: to encourage visitors to stay for supper. Behind this surface divergence in immediate purpose there is the unified underlying goal of _ _ _ _ _.

(A) keeping the lines at the various rides short by drawing off part of the crowd

(B) enhancing revenue by attracting people who come only for the live shows and then leave the park

(C) avoiding as far as possible traffic jams caused by visitors entering or leaving the park

(D) encouraging as many people as possible to come to the park in order to eat at the restaurants

(E) utilizing the restaurants at optimal levels for as much of the day as possible


9.James weighs more than Kelly.
Luis weighs more than Mark.
Mark weighs less than Ned.
Kelly and Ned are exactly the same weight.

If the information above is true, which of the following must also be true?

(A) Luis weighs more than Ned.

(B) Luis weighs more than James.

(C) Kelly weighs less than Luis.

(D) James weighs more than Mark

(E) Kelly weighs less than Mark.


Questions 10-11 are based on the following.

Partly because of bad weather, but also partly because some major pepper growers have switched to high-priced cocoa, world production of pepper has been running well below worldwide sales for three years. Pepper is consequently in relatively short supply. The price of pepper has soared in response: it now equals that of cocoa.


10. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A) Pepper is a profitable crop only if it is grown on a large scale.

(B) World consumption of pepper has been unusually high for three years.

(C) World production of pepper will return to previous levels once normal weather returns.

(D) Surplus stocks of pepper have been reduced in the past three years.

(E) The profits that the growers of pepper have made in the past three years have been unprecedented.


11. Some observers have concluded that the rise in the price of pepper means that the switch by some growers from pepper to cocoa left those growers no better off than if none of them had switched; this conclusion, however, is unwarranted because it can be inferred to be likely that

(A) those growers could not have foreseen how high the price of pepper would go

(B) the initial cost involved in switching from pepper to cocoa is substantial

(C) supplies of pepper would not be as low as they are if those growers had not switched crops

(D) cocoa crops are as susceptible to being reduced by bad weather as are pepper crops

(E) as more growers turn to growing cocoa, cocoa supplies will increase and the price of cocoa will fall precipitously.


12. Using computer techniques, researchers analyze layers of paint that lie buried beneath the surface layers of old paintings. They claim, for example, that additional mountainous scenery once appeared in Leonardo da Vinci’s Mona Lisa, which was later painted over. Skeptics reply to these claims, however, that X-ray examinations of the Mona Lisa do not show hidden mountains.

Which of the following, if true, would tend most to weaken the force of the skeptics’ objections?

(A) There is no written or anecdotal record that Leonardo da Vinci ever painted over major areas of his Mona Lisa.

(B) Painters of da Vinci’s time commonly created images of mountainous scenery in the backgrounds of portraits like the Mona Lisa.

(C) No one knows for certain what parts of the Mona Lisa may have been painted by da Vinci’s assistants rather than by da Vinci himself.

(D) Infrared photography of the Mona Lisa has revealed no trace of hidden mountainous scenery.

(E) Analysis relying on X-rays only has the capacity to detect lead-based white pigments in layers of paint beneath a painting’s surface layers.


13. While Governor Verdant has been in office, the state’s budget has increased by an average of 6 percent each year. While the previous governor was in office, the state’s budget increased by an average of 11.5 percent each year. Obviously, the austere budgets during Governor Verdant’s term have caused the slowdown in the growth in state spending.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn above?

(A) The rate of inflation in the state averaged 10 percent each year during the previous governor’s term in office and 3 percent each year during Verdant’s term.

(B) Both federal and state income tax rates have been lowered considerably during Verdant’s term in office.

(C) In each year of Verdant’s term in office, the state’s budget has shown some increase in spending over the previous year.

(D) During Verdant’s term in office, the state has either discontinued or begun to charge private citizens for numerous services that the state offered free to citizens during the previous governor’s term.

(E) During the previous governor’s term in office, the state introduced several so-called " austerity" budgets intended to reduce the growth in state spending.


14. Federal agricultural programs aimed at benefiting one group whose livelihood depends on farming often end up harming another such group.

Which of the following statements provides support for the claim above?

Ⅰ. An effort to help feed-grain producers resulted in higher prices for their crops, but the higher prices decreased the profits of livestock producers.

Ⅱ. In order to reduce crop surpluses and increase prices, growers of certain crops were paid to leave a portion of their land idle, but the reduction was not achieved because improvements in efficiency resulted in higher production on the land in use.

Ⅲ.Many farm workers were put out of work when a program meant to raise the price of grain provided grain growers with an incentive to reduce production by giving them surplus grain from government reserves.

(A) Ⅰ, but not Ⅱ and not Ⅲ

(B) Ⅱ, but not Ⅰand not Ⅲ

(C) Ⅰand Ⅲ, but not Ⅱ

(D) Ⅱ and Ⅲ, but not Ⅰ

(E) Ⅰ,Ⅱand Ⅲ


15. Technological education is worsening. People between eighteen and twenty-four, who are just emerging from their formal education, are more likely to be technologically illiterate than somewhat older adults. And yet, issues for public referenda will increasingly involve aspects of technology.

Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above?

(A) If all young people are to make informed decisions on public referenda, many of them must learn more about technology.

(B) Thorough studies of technological issues and innovations should be made a required part of the public and private school curriculum.

(C) It should be suggested that prospective voters attend applied science courses in order to acquire a minimal competency in technical matters.

(D) If young people are not to be overly influenced by famous technocrats, they must increase their knowledge of pure science.

(E) On public referenda issues, young people tend to confuse real or probable technologies with impossible ideals.


16. In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed.

If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

(A) If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.

(B) If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than one-half of the vote.

(C) A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.

(D) The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.

(E) The founders of a third party are likely to be a coalition consisting of former leaders of the two major parties.


17. Companies considering new cost-cutting manufacturing processes often compare the projected results of making the investment against the alternative of not making the investment with costs, selling prices, and share of market remaining constant.

Which of the following, assuming that each is a realistic possibility, constitutes the most serious disadvantage for companies of using the method above for evaluating the financial benefit of new manufacturing processes?

(A) The costs of materials required by the new process might not be known with certainty.

(B) In several years interest rates might go down, reducing the interest costs of borrowing money to pay for the investment.

(C) Some cost-cutting processes might require such expensive investments that there would be no net gain for many years, until the investment was paid for by savings in the manufacturing process.

(D) Competitors that do invest in a new process might reduce their selling prices and thus take market share away from companies that do not.

(E) The period of year chosen for averaging out the cost of the investment might be somewhat longer or shorter, thus affecting the result.


18. There are far fewer children available for adoption than there are people who want to adopt. Two million couples are currently waiting to adopt, but in 1982, the last year for which figures exist, there were only some 50,000 adoptions.

Which of the following statements, if true, most strengthens the author’s claim that there are far fewer children available for adoption than there are people who want to adopt?

(A) The number of couples waiting to adopt has increased significantly in the last decade.

(B) The number of adoptions in the current year is greater than the number of adoptions in any preceding year.

(C) The number of adoptions in a year is approximately equal to the number of children available for adoption in that period.

(D) People who seek to adopt children often go through a long process of interviews and investigation by adoption agencies.

(E) People who seek to adopt children generally make very good parents.


Questions 19-20 are based on the following

Archaeologists seeking the location of a legendary siege and destruction of a city are excavating in several possible places, including a middle and a lower layer of a large mound. The bottom of the middle layer contains some pieces of pottery of type 3, known to be from a later period than the time of the destruction of the city, but the lower layer does not.


19. Which of the following hypotheses is best supported by the evidence above?

(A) The lower layer contains the remains of the city where the siege took place.

(B) The legend confuses stories from two different historical periods.

(C) The middle layer does not represent the period of the siege.

(D) The siege lasted for a long time before the city was destroyed.

(E) The pottery of type 3 was imported to the city by traders.


20. The force of the evidence cited above is most seriously weakened if which of the following is true?

(A) Gerbils, small animals long native to the area, dig large burrows into which objects can fall when the burrows collapse.

(B) Pottery of types 1 and 2, found in the lower level, was used in the cities from which, according to the legend, the besieging forces came.

(C) Several pieces of stone from a lower-layer wall have been found incorporated into the remains of a building in the middle layer.

(D) Both the middle and the lower layer show evidence of large-scale destruction of habitations by fire.

(E) Bronze axheads of a type used at the time of the siege were found in the lower level of excavation.


21. A milepost on the towpath read " 21" on the side facing the hiker as she approached it and " 23" on its back. She reasoned that the next milepost forward on the path would indicate that she was halfway between one end of the path and the other. However, the milepost one mile further on read " 20" facing her and " 24" behind.

Which of the following, if true, would explain the discrepancy described above?

(A) The numbers on the next milepost had been reversed.

(B) The numbers on the mileposts indicate kilometers, not miles.

(C) The facing numbers indicate miles to the end of the path, not miles from the beginning.

(D) A milepost was missing between the two the hiker encountered.

(E) The mileposts had originally been put in place for the use of mountain bikers, not for hikers.


22. Airline: Newly developed collision-avoidance systems, although not fully tested to discover potential malfunctions, must be installed immediately in passenger planes. Their mechanical warnings enable pilots to avoid crashes.
Pilots: Pilots will not fly in planes with collision-avoidance systems that are not fully tested. Malfunctioning systems could mislead pilots, causing crashes.
The pilots’ objection is most strengthened if which of the following is true?

(A) It is always possible for mechanical devices to malfunction.

(B) Jet engines, although not fully tested when first put into use, have achieved exemplary performance and safety records.

(C) Although collision-avoidance systems will enable pilots to avoid some crashes, the likely malfunctions of the not-fully-tested systems will cause even more crashes.

(D) Many airline collisions are caused in part by the exhaustion of overworked pilots.

(E) Collision-avoidance systems, at this stage of development, appear to have worked better in passenger planes than in cargo planes during experimental flights made over a six-month period.


23. Guitar strings often go " dead" --become less responsive and bright in tone--after a few weeks of intense use. A researcher whose son is a classical guitarist hypothesized that dirt and oil, rather than changes in the material properties of the string, were responsible.
Which of the following investigations is most likely to yield significant information that would help to evaluate the researcher’s hypothesis?

(A) Determining if a metal alloy is used to make the strings used by classical guitarists

(B) Determining whether classical guitarists make their strings go dead faster than do folk guitarists

(C) Determining whether identical lengths of string, of the same gauge, go dead at different rates when strung on various brands of guitars.

(D) Determining whether a dead string and a new string produce different qualities of sound

(E) Determining whether smearing various substances on new guitar strings causes them to go dead


24. Most consumers do not get much use out of the sports equipment they purchase. For example, seventeen percent of the adults in the United States own jogging shoes, but only forty-five percent of the owners jog more than once a year, and only seventeen percent jog more than once a week.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the claim that most consumers get little use out of the sports equipment they purchase?

(A) Joggers are most susceptible to sports injuries during the first six months in which they jog.

(B) Joggers often exaggerate the frequency with which they jog in surveys designed to elicit such information.

(C) Many consumers purchase jogging shoes for use in activities other than jogging.

(D) Consumers who take up jogging often purchase an athletic shoe that can be used in other sports.

(E) Joggers who jog more than once a week are often active participants in other sports as well.


25. Two decades after the Emerald River Dam was built, none of the eight fish species native to the Emerald River was still reproducing adequately in the river below the dam. Since the dam reduced the annual range of water temperature in the river below the dam from 50 degrees to 6 degrees, scientists have hypothesized that sharply rising water temperatures must be involved in signaling the native species to begin the reproductive cycle.

Which of  the following statements, if true, would most strengthen the scientists’ hypothesis?

(A) The native fish species were still able to reproduce only in side streams of the river below the dam where the annual temperature range remains approximately 50 degrees.

(B) Before the dam was built, the Emerald River annually overflowed its banks, creating backwaters that were critical breeding areas for the native species of fish.

(C) The lowest recorded temperature of the Emerald River before the dam was built was 34 degrees, whereas the lowest recorded temperature of the river after the dam was built has been 43 degrees.

(D) Nonnative species of fish, introduced into the Emerald River after the dam was built, have begun competing with the declining native fish species for food and space.

(E) Five of the fish species native to the Emerald River are not native to any other river in North America.




Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions

Questions 1-8

  Recent years have brought minority-owned

businesses in the United States unprecedented

opportunities-as well as new and significant risks.

Civil rights activists have long argued that one of

(5)  the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, and

other minority groups have difficulty establishing

themselves in business is that they lack access to

the sizable orders and subcontracts that are gener-

ated by large companies. Now Congress, in appar-

(10) ent agreement, has required by law that businesses

awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000

do their best to find minority subcontractors and

record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the

government. Indeed, some federal and local agen-

(15) cies have gone so far as to set specific percentage

goals for apportioning parts of public works con-

tracts to minority enterprises.

    Corporate response appears to have been sub-

stantial. According to figures collected in 1977,

(20) the total of corporate contracts with minority busi-

nesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. lbillion

in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts

with minority businesses for the early 1980’s is

estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no

(25) letup anticipated in the next decade.

  Promising as it is for minority businesses, this

increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.

First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and

overextending themselves financially, since most

(30) are small concerns and, unlike large businesses,

they often need to make substantial investments in

new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order

to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-

after, their subcontracts are for some reason

(35) reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling

fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing

can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get

requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids.

Both consume valuable time and resources, and a

(40)  small company’s efforts must soon result in

orders, or both the morale and the financial health

of the business will suffer.

A second risk is that White-owned companies

may seek to cash in on the increasing apportion-

(45)    ments through formation of joint ventures with

minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many

instances there are legitimate reasons for joint

ventures; clearly, White and minority enterprises

can team up to acquire business that neither could

(50)  acquire alone. But civil rights groups and minority

business owners have complained to Congress about

minorities being set up as " fronts" with White back-

ing, rather than being accepted as full partners in

legitimate joint ventures.

(55)  Third, a minority enterprise that secures the

business of one large corporate customer often run

the danger of becoming--and remaining--dependent.

Even in the best of circumstances, fierce compe-

tition from larger, more established companies

(60)    makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden

their customer bases: when such firms have nearly

guaranteed orders from a single corporate bene-

factor, they may truly have to struggle against

complacency arising from their current success


1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

  (A) present a commonplace idea and its inaccuracies

  (B) describe a situation and its potential drawbacks

  (C) propose a temporary solution to a problem

  (D) analyze a frequent source of disagreement

  (E) explore the implications of a finding


2. The passage supplies information that would answer which of the following questions?

  (A) What federal agencies have set percentage goals for the use of minority-owned businesses in public works contracts?

  (B) To which government agencies must businesses awarded federal contracts report their efforts to find minority subcontractors?

  (C) How widespread is the use of minority-owned concerns as " fronts" by White backers seeking to obtain subcontracts?

  (D) How many more minority-owned businesses were there in 1977 than in 1972?

  (E) What is one set of conditions under which a small business might find itself financially overextended?


3. According to the passage, civil rights activists maintain that one disadvantage under which minority- owned businesses have traditionally had to labor is that they have

  (A) been especially vulnerable to governmental mismanagement of the economy

  (B) been denied bank loans at rates comparable to those afforded larger competitors

  (C) not had sufficient opportunity to secure business created by large corporations

  (D) not been able to advertise in those media that reach large numbers of potential customers

  (E) not had adequate representation in the centers of government power


4. The passage suggests that the failure of a large business to have its bids for subcontracts result quickly in orders might cause it to

  (A) experience frustration but not serious financial harm

  (B) face potentially crippling fixed expenses

  (C) have to record its efforts on forms filed with the government

  (D) increase its spending with minority subcontractors

  (E) revise its procedure for making bids for federal  contracts and subcontracts


5. The author implies that a minority-owned concern that does the greater part of its business with one large corporate customer should

  (A) avoid competition with larger, more established concerns by not expanding

  (B) concentrate on securing even more business from that corporation 

  (C) try to expand its customer base to avoid becoming dependent on the corporation

  (D) pass on some of the work to be done for the corporation to other minority-owned concerns

  (E) use its influence with the corporation to promote subcontracting with other minority concerns


6. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared with the requirements of law, the percentage goals set by " some federal and local agencies " (lines 14-15) are

  (A) more popular with large corporations

  (B) more specific

  (C) less controversial

  (D) less expensive to enforce

  (E) easier to comply with


7. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s assertion that, in the 1970’s, corporate response to federal requirements (lines 18-19) was substantial

  (A) Corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses totaled $2 billion in 1979.

  (B) Between 1970 and 1972, corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses declined by 25 percent.

  (C) The figures collected in 1977 underrepresented the extent of corporate contracts with minority-owned businesses.

  (D) The estimate of corporate spending with minority-owned businesses in 1980 is approximately $10 million too high.

  (E) The $1.1 billion represented the same percentage of total corporate spending in 1977 as did $77 million in 1972.


8. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about corporate response to working with minority subcontractors?

  (A) Annoyed by the proliferation of " front" organizations, corporations are likely to reduce their efforts to work with minority-owned subcontractors in the near future.

  (B) Although corporations showed considerable interest in working with minority businesses in the 1970’s, their aversion to government paperwork made them reluctant to pursue many government contracts.
  (C) The significant response of corporations in the 1970’s is likely to be sustained and conceivably be increased throughout the 1980’s.

  (D) Although corporations are eager to cooperate with minority-owned businesses, a shortage of capital in the 1970’s made substantial response impossible.

  (E) The enormous corporate response has all but eliminated the dangers of overexpansion that used to plague small minority-owned businesses.


Questions 9-17


Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal

idea of the economic market when he said that

the free enterprise system is the most efficient

economic system. Maximum freedom means

(5) maximum productiveness; our " openness" is to

be the measure of our stability. Fascination with

this ideal has made Americans defy the " Old

World" categories of settled possessiveness versus

unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention

(10) versus the cupidity of seizure, a " status quo"

defended or attacked. The United States, it was

believed, had no status quo ante. Our only " sta-

tion" was the turning of a stationary wheel, spin-

ning faster and faster. We did not base our

(15) system on property but opportunity---which

meant we based it not on stability but on mobil-

ity. The more things changed, that is, the more

rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would

be. The conventional picture of class politics is

(20) composed of the Haves, who want a stability to

keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who

want a touch of instability and change in which

to scramble for the things they have not. But

Americans imagined a condition in which spec-

(25) ulators, self-makers, runners are always using the

 new opportunities given by our land. These eco-

nomic leaders (front-runners) would thus he

mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were

considered the ones who wanted stability, a

(30) strong referee to give them some position in the

race, a regulative hand to calm manic specula-

tion; an authority that can call things to a halt,

begin things again from compensatorily stag-

gered " starting lines."

(35)" Reform" in America has been sterile because

it can imagine no change except through the

extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclu-

sion of competitors, " a piece of the action," as it

were, for the disenfranchised. There is no

(40) attempt to call off the race. Since our only sta-

bility is change, America seems not to honor the

quiet work that achieves social interdependence

and stability. There is, in our legends, no hero-

ism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work

(45) force of the people who actually make the system work.

There is no pride in being an employee

(Wilson asked for a return to the time when

everyone was an employer). There has been no

boasting about our social workers---they are

(50) merely signs of the system’s failure, of opportu-

nity denied or not taken, of things to be elimi-

nated. We have no pride in our growing

interdependence, in the fact that our system can

serve others, that we are able to help those in

(55) need; empty boasts from the past make us

ashamed of our present achievements, make us

try to forget or deny them, move away from

them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland

race we must all run, all trying to win, none

(60) winning in the end (for there is no end).


9. The primary purpose of the passage is to

  (A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic mythology

  (B) contrast " Old World" and " New World" economic ideologies

  (C) challenge the integrity of traditional political leaders

  (D) champion those Americans whom the author deems to be neglected

  (E) suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor of a race


10. According to the passage, " Old World" values were based on

  (A) ability

  (B) property

  (C) family connections

  (D) guild hierarchies

  (E) education


11. In the context of the author’s discussion of regulating change, which of the following could be most probably regarded as a " strong referee" (line 30) in the United States?

  (A) A school principal

  (B) A political theorist

  (C) A federal court judge

  (D) A social worker

  (E) A government inspector


12 The author sets off the word " Reform" (line 35) with quotation marks in order to

  (A) emphasize its departure from the concept of settled possessiveness

  (B) show his support for a systematic program of change

  (C) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness of United States society.

  (D) indicate that the term was one of Wilson’s favorites 

  (E) assert that reform in the United States has not been fundamental


13. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised " a piece of the action " (line 38) is

  (A) a compassionate, if misdirected, legislative measure 

  (B) an example of Americans’ resistance to profound social change

  (C) an innovative program for genuine social reform

  (D) a monument to the efforts of industrial reformers

  (E) a surprisingly " Old World" remedy for social ills


14. Which of the following metaphors could the author most appropriately use to summarize his own assessment of the American economic system (lines 35-60)?

  (A) A windmill

  (B) A waterfall

  (C) A treadmill

  (D) A gyroscope

  (E) A bellows


15. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow Wilson’s ideas about the economic market

  (A) encouraged those who " make the system work" (lines 45-46)

  (B) perpetuated traditional legends about America

  (C) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy

  (D) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929

  (E) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on economics


16. The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?

  Ⅰ.What techniques have industrialists used to manipulate a free market?

  Ⅱ.In what ways are " New World" and " Old World" economic policies similar?

  Ⅲ. Has economic policy in the United States tended to reward independent action?

  (A) Ⅰonly
  (B) Ⅱonly

  (C) Ⅲ only

  (D) Ⅰand Ⅱ only

  (E) Ⅱand Ⅲ only


17. Which of the following best expresses the author’s main point?

  (A) Americans’ pride in their jobs continues to give them stamina today.
  (B) The absence of a status quo ante has undermined United States economic structure.

  (C) The free enterprise system has been only a useless concept in the United States

  (D) The myth of the American free enterprise system is seriously flawed.

  (E) Fascination with the ideal of " openness" has made Americans a progressive people.


Questions 18-25


No very satisfactory account of the mechanism

that caused the formation of the ocean basins

has yet been given. The traditional view supposes

that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a

(5)  liquid when it is subjected to small forces for

long periods and that differences in temperature

under oceans and continents are sufficient to

produce convection in the mantle of the earth

with rising convection currents under the mid-

(10) ocean ridges and sinking currents under the

continents. Theoretically, this convection would

carry the continental plates along as though they

were on a conveyor belt and would provide the

forces needed to produce the split that occurs

(15) along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has

the advantage that the currents are driven by

temperature differences that themselves depend

on the position of the continents. Such a back-

coupling, in which the position of the moving

(20) plate has an impact on the forces that move it,

could produce complicated and varying motions.

On the other hand, the theory is implausible

because convection does not normally occur

along lines. and it certainly does not occur along

(25) lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in

direction, as the ridge is. Also it is difficult to see

how the theory applies to the plate between the

Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the Indian

Ocean. This plate is growing on both sides, and

(30) since there is no intermediate trench, the two

ridges must be moving apart. It would be odd if

the rising convection currents kept exact pace

with them. An alternative theory is that the sink-

ing part of the plate, which is denser than the

(35) hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the

plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this

applies to the ridge in the South Atlantic, where

neither the African nor the American plate has a

sinking part.

(40)   Another possibility is that the sinking plate

cools the neighboring mantle and produces con-

vection currents that move the plates. This last

theory is attractive because it gives some hope of

explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of

(45) Japan. These seas have a typical oceanic floor,

except that the floor is overlaid by several kilo-

meters of sediment. Their floors have probably

been sinking for long periods. It seems possible

that a sinking current of cooled mantle material

(50) on the upper side of the plate might be the cause

of such deep basins. The enclosed seas are an

important feature of the earth’s surface, and

seriously require explanation in because, addi-

tion to the enclosed seas that are developing at

present behind island arcs, there are a number of

(55) older ones of possibly similar origin, such as the

Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the

North Sea.


18. According to the traditional view of the origin of the ocean basins, which of the following is sufficient to move the continental plates?

  (A) Increases in sedimentation on ocean floors

  (B) Spreading of ocean trenches

  (C) Movement of mid-ocean ridges

  (D) Sinking of ocean basins

  (E) Differences in temperature under oceans and continents


19. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the following, the deepest sediments would be found in the

  (A) Indian Ocean

  (B) Black Sea

  (C) Mid-Atlantic

  (D) South Atlantic

  (E) Pacific


20. The author refers to a " conveyor belt " in line 13 in order to

  (A) illustrate the effects of convection in the mantle

  (B) show how temperature differences depend on the positions of the continents

  (C) demonstrate the linear nature of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

  (D) describe the complicated motions made possible by back-coupling

  (E) account for the rising currents under certain mid-ocean ridges


21. The author regards the traditional view of the origin of the oceans with

  (A) slight apprehension

  (B) absolute indifference

  (C) indignant anger

  (D) complete disbelief

  (E) guarded skepticism


22. According to the passage, which of the following are separated by a plate that is growing on both sides?

  (A) The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan

  (B) The South Atlantic Ridge and the North Sea Ridge

  (C) The Gulf of Mexico and the South Atlantic Ridge

  (D) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the Indian Ocean Ridge

  (E) The Black Sea and the Sea of Japan


23. Which of the following, if it could be demonstrated, would most support the traditional view of ocean formation?

  (A) Convection usually occurs along lines.

  (B) The upper mantle behaves as a dense solid.

  (C) Sedimentation occurs at a constant rate.

  (D) Sinking plates cool the mantle.

  (E) Island arcs surround enclosed seas.


24. According to the passage, the floor of the Black Sea can best be compared to a

  (A) rapidly moving conveyor belt

  (B) slowly settling foundation

  (C) rapidly expanding balloon

  (D) violently erupting volcano

  (E) slowly eroding mountain


25. Which of the following titles would best describe the content of the passage?

  (A) A Description of the Oceans of the World

  (B) Several Theories of Ocean Basin Formation

  (C) The Traditional View of the Oceans

  (D) Convection and Ocean Currents

  (E) Temperature Differences Among the Oceans of the World




Time – 35 minutes

25 Questions


1. Drug companies lose money when manufacturing drugs that cure those suffering from rare diseases because selling a drug to only a few people usually does not recoup manufacturing expenses. Therefore, a company manufacturing any of the drugs that cure those suffering from loxemia, an extremely rare disease, will undoubtedly lose money.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?

(A) Several drugs that cure those suffering from loxemia also cure those suffering from very common illnesses.

(B) Most of those who contract loxemia also contract another illness concurrently.

(C) Most of the drug companies that manufacture drugs that cure rare diseases do not manufacture drugs that cure loxemia.

(D) A sizable number of people are afflicted with one or another rare disease even though each rare disease afflicts only a small number of people.

(E) The larger the amount of a drug that is manufactured, the lower the manufacturing expense for each unit of the drug that is produced.


2.The tomb of a warrior killed in 1501 bears a sculpted portrait depicting him dressed for battle. Some historians attribute the portrait to an artist from that century, but of the many references to the tomb in surviving documents, none that predates the 1800's mentions the portrait. The portrait is therefore more likely the work of a much later artist.

Which of the following, if true, would also support the conclusion of the argument if substituted for the evidence given concerning the portrait?

(A) The portrait of the warrior was commissioned by the family of the warrior's widow.

(B) References in surviving documents mention that an artist was paid in 1525 for an unspecified number of works for the church in which the tomb is located

(C) The warrior is depicted in the portrait as wearing boots made of a material not used for boots until the 1700's.

(D) Some other art treasures from the church in which the tomb is located have been reliable dated to the 1400's.

(E) The portrait of the warrior on the tomb strongly resembles a portrait of him known to have been completed during his lifetime.


Questions 3-7

A florist is designing flower arrangements containing two or more varieties of flowers selected from among six varieties of flowers: freesias, irises, lilies, peonies, tulips, and zinnias. All acceptable arrangements conform to the following conditions:

If an arrangement contains any freesias, it cannot contain any zinnias.

If an arrangement contains any tulips, it cannot contain any zinnias.

If an arrangement contains any peonies, it must also contain at least one zinnia, and there must be exactly as many zinnias as peonies.

If an arrangement contains any irises, it must also contain tulips, and there must be twice as many tulips as irises.

If an arrangement contains freesias, the number of freesias must be greater than the total number of other flowers used.


3. Which of the following flower arrangements could be made acceptable simply by adding a tulip?

(A) Three freesias, one lily, two tulips

(B) Four freesias, two peonies, one tulip

(C) Five freesias, one iris, one tulip

(D) Two irises, two tulips, two zinnias

(E) Two lilies, two peonies, two tulips


4.Which of the following, if added to an unacceptable flower arrangement consisting of four tulips and two freesias, would make the arrangement acceptable?

(A) Four freesias

(B) Four irises

(C) Two lilies

(D) Two peonies

(E) Two zinnias


5.Each of the following is a pair of varieties of flowers that can be used together in an acceptable flower arrangement EXCEPT

(A) freesias and irises

(B) freesias and tulips

(C) irises and lilies

(D) irises and peonies

(E) lilies and zinnias


6.Which of the following unacceptable flower arrangements could be made acceptable simply by removing some or all of the flowers of one variety?

(A) Four freesias, one iris, one lily, one peony

(B) Four freesias, one iris, two tulips, one zinnia

(C) Four freesias, two irises, two tulips, one zinnia

(D) Three freesias, one lily, one peony, two zinnias

(E) Three freesias, two peonies, one tulip, two zinnias


7.If an unacceptable flower arrangement consisting of four freesias, one lily, one peony, and two tulips is to be made acceptable by adding or removing only one flower, which of the following must be done?

(A) Add one freesia

(B) Add one iris

(C) Add one zinnia

(D) Remove the peony

(E) Remove one tulip


8.Scientist:More than 1, 000 large asteroids regularly cross the Earth's path. Even though the probability of one colliding with the Earth is extremely slight, we should do whatever we can to reduce that probability since any such collision would be catastrophic. The best way to avoid such a disaster is to deflect the asteroids. The only known way of deflecting asteroids is by hitting them with nuclear weapons that would be stored in space stations.

The scientist’s claims are structured so as to lead to which of the following conclusions?

(A) Nuclear technology is the only technology that can plausibly be used to prevent natural catastrophes.

(B) Nuclear weapons should be deployed in space.

(C) No catastrophe has yet been caused by the collision of an asteroid with the Earth.

(D) The 1, 000 large asteroids that cross the Earth's path pose only an extremely slight risk of colliding with the Earth.

(E) There is currently no acceptable use to which nuclear weapons can be put, aside from protecting the Earth from asteroids.


9.It has long been thought that high levels of the hormone testosterone contribute to the onset of heart disease in men. However, this view cannot be correct, since men who have heart disease typically show significantly lower levels of testosterone than do men who have not had heart disease.

The argument above assumes which of the following?

(A) Many men who have never had heart disease have unusually low levels of testosterone.

(B) Having heart disease does not significantly lower the level of testosterone in men.

(C) Levels of hormones other than testosterone significantly affect the likelihood that a man will develop heart disease.

(D) Heart disease and lowered testosterone levels in men are the effects of a single common cause.

(E) High levels of testosterone have never been thought to contribute to a serious disease other than heart disease.


The time-out technique involves removing the child from an undesirable situation in order to let the child think things over. Over the last two decades, family doctors have been advocating this technique as preferable to spanking, which is now known to be potentially injurious and no more effective.


10.Which of the following can properly be concluded from the data presented in the graph?

(A) The 1962 survey was based on a larger sample than the 1992 survey was.

(B) In the period between the surveys, denying television privileges was never the disciplinary technique most popular with parents.

(C) The four disciplinary techniques featured in the graph were the only disciplinary techniques named by parents in either survey.

(D) The 1962 survey allowed parents to name more than one disciplinary technique, but the 1992 survey may not have allowed this.

(E) In the period between the surveys, there were no significant changes in the popularity of lecturing children as a disciplinary method.


11.People who engage in scuba diving are healthier, on average, than people who do not engage in this activity. Therefore, scuba diving tends to promote improved health.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it

(A) presupposes that everyone who takes up scuba diving does so solely for health reasons

(B) leads to a further and falsifiable conclusion that no one can achieve good health without engaging in scuba diving

(C) fails to point out that a small number of people are seriously injured in scuba diving accidents each year

(D) treats a precondition for improving one's health as though it were something that by itself could ensure good health

(E) overlooks the possibility that people generally do not take up scuba diving unless they are in good health


Questions 12-15


An art museum owns six paintings by an eighteenth-century painter.The paintings, listed in order by estimated value from lowest to highest, are F, G, H, S, T, and U.Paintings F, G, and H are landscapes; S, T, and U are portraits.At any one time, exactly three of the six paintings are on exhibit, subject to the following restrictions:

The paintings on exhibit cannot all be landscapes.

If the exhibit includes only one portrait, that portrait must be U.

H cannot be on exhibit at any time that T is on exhibit.


12.Which of the following could be the three paintings on exhibit at some point?

(A) F, G, and H

(B) F, G, and T

(C) G, H, and S

(D) G, S, and U

(E) H, T, and U


13.Which of the following, if they are the first two paintings selected for inclusion in a future exhibit, leave the widest choice of paintings for the third painting in that future exhibit?

(A) F and G

(B) G and H

(C) H and U

(D) S and T

(E) S and U


14.An exhibit must include S if which of the following is true?

(A) T is included in the exhibit.

(B) T is not included in the exhibit.

(C) H is the only landscape included in the exhibit.

(D) U is included in the exhibit.

(E) The exhibit includes either F or G, but not both.


15.If U is undergoing restoration and is not available to be exhibited, which of the following is a painting that CANNOT then be exhibited?

(A) F

(B) G

(C) H

(D) S

(E) T


Questions 16-22

In each of the five consecutive days of a cooks' contention, exactly one of five well-known cooks--G, H, J, K, and L--will cook a demonstration meal.Each of the five cooks will cook exactly one of the five meals. The schedule for the cooks is constrained by the following conditions:

H cannot cook on any of the first three days.

L must cook on one of the days before the day on which H cooks.

J must cook on one of the days before the day on which G cooks.

G must cook on one of the days before the day on which K cooks.


16.Which of the following can be the order, from first to fifth, in which the five cooks cook the meals?

(A) G, K, L, J, H

(B) J, G, K, H, L

(C) J, G, K, L, H

(D) J, K, G, L, H

(E) L, J, H, K, G


17.If K cooks the fourth meal, which of the following must be true?

(A) G cooks on the third day.

(B) H cooks on the fifth day.

(C) J cooks on the first day.

(D) J cooks on the second day.

(E) L cooks on the third day.


18.Which of the following can be true?

(A) G cooks the first meal.

(B) J cooks the fourth meal.

(C) L cooks the fifth meal.

(D) H cooks on some day before G cooks.

(E) L cooks on some day after K cooks.


19.If G cooks a meal on some day before L does, then it must be true that

(A) G cooks the second meal

(B) J cooks the third meal

(C) H cooks the fourth meal

(D) K cooks the fifth meal

(E) L cooks the fourth meal


20.If J does not cook on the first day, then it must be true that

(A) G does not cook the third meal

(B) H does not cook the fourth meal

(C) J does not cook the second meal

(D) L does not cook the third meal

(E) K does not cook the fifth meal


21.If H does not cook the fifth meal, which of the following must be true?

(A) G cooks the second meal.

(B) J cooks the first meal.

(C) J cooks the second meal.

(D) K cooks the fifth meal.

(E) L cooks the first meal.


22.If G cooks the third meal, which of the following is true?

(A) L is the only one of the five cooks who can cook the first meal.

(B) J is the only one of the five cooks who can cook the second meal.

(C) Any one of exactly three of the five cooks can cook the second meal.

(D) K is the only one of the five cooks who can cook the fourth meal.

(E) Either one of exactly two of the five cooks can cook the fifth meal.


23.Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?

In recent years, the proportion of car buyers who buy new cars rather than used cars has declined. Some consumers have attributed this change to an increase in new-car prices. As evidence of the price increase, they cite figures that show that, even adjusting for inflation, the price that the buyer of a new car pays, on average, is far higher now than a few years ago.

This evidence is unpersuasive, however, because

(A) the value of a car that is bought new declines much more rapidly than does the value of a car that is bought used

(B) after someone has bought a car, it might be several years before that person next buys a car

(C) a decline in the proportion of car buyers who buy new cars must necessarily mean that the proportion who buy used cars has increased

(D) the relative increase in used-car sales might be explained by the decisions of only a small proportion of all car buyers

(E) the change in the average price paid for a new car could result solely from more people's rejecting inexpensive new cars in favor of used cars


24.In Bassaria a group of that country's most senior judges has criticized the uniform mandatory sentences recently introduced for certain specific crimes. The judges argue that such sentences, by depriving them of all discretion in setting sentences, make it impossible for them to consider either aggravating or extenuating circumstances and so make it impossible to achieve true justice--the fitting of the severity of the punishment to the gravity of the particular crime.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence for the claim that in Bassaria the newly introduced mandatory sentences are not necessarily a change for the worse with respect to achieving true justice as defined in the argument?

(A) Before mandatory sentencing, judges in eastern Bassaria imposed strikingly different sentences from those in western Bassaria for equally grave instances of the same kind of offense.

(B) In Bassaria the frequency of crimes that have been made subject to mandatory sentences is lower now than it was just prior to the introduction of mandatory sentencing.

(C) The law introducing mandatory sentences was passed in the legislature of Bassaria by a large majority and is unlikely to be repealed in the foreseeable future.

(D) There used to be a wide difference between the minimum and the maximum sentences allowed by law in cases of crimes now subject to mandatory sentences.

(E) In Bassaria judges are appointed for life and are thus not easily influenced by political pressure groups.


25.Each of two particular inspection systems that are based on different principles would detect all product flaws but would also erroneously reject three percent of flawless products. Assuming there is no overlap between the products erroneously rejected by the two systems and also no interference between the systems if both operate, using both systems and rejecting only those products found flawed by both would be a way of avoiding all erroneous rejections.

Which of the following most precisely characterizes the reasoning in the argument?

(A) The reasoning is conclusive, that is, the conclusion cannot be false if the statements offered in its support are true.

(B) The reasoning is strong but not conclusive, if the statements offered in support of the conclusion are true, they provide good grounds for that conclusion, though it is possible that additional information might weaken the argument.

(C) The reasoning is weak; the statements offered in support of the conclusion, though relevant to it, by themselves provide at best inadequate grounds for the conclusion.

(D) The reasoning is flawed in that the conclusion is no more than a paraphrase of one of the pieces of evidence offered in its support.

(E) The reasoning is flawed in that the argument treats evidence that a factor is necessary to bring about an event as if it were evidence that the factor is sufficient to bring about that event.


SECTION I (Logic Game)


























SECTION II (Logical Reasoning)


























SECTION III (Reading Comprehension)


























SECTION IV (Logical Reasoning)


























About LSAT

LSAT stands for Law School Admission Test, a standard exam held by the Law School Admission Council. It began in 1948 and has been an important criterion for assessing law school applicants since then. In the United States and Canada, nearly all law school applicants have to take LSAT because LSAT, aside from GPA score, is another effective way of assessing an applicant's academic ability.

Registration and Test Date

The LSAT is administrated four times each year, in February, June, October and December at designated test centers across the world. In general, an applicant is not allowed to take the exam more than three times in any 2-year period. The cost of taking LSAT in the United States is USD$165, and CAD$164 in Canada.


There is no official prerequisite. Both graduates and undergraduate students can take LSAT if they plan to apply to law schools.

Test Composition

The format of today's LSAT has been adopted since 1991. A full exam takes three and a half hours and consists of six 35-minute sections: five multiple choice sections (including an unscored experimental section) and an unscored writing section.

Usually, there are three types of multiple-choice question in the real LSAT.

Logical reasoning questions: the LSAT consists of two logical reasoning sections, each with 24-26 questions. In general, the candidates will be provided several short passages or dialogues followed by relevant questions. The passage encompasses a wide range of subjects such as philosophy, literature, politics, technology, art, history, and sports. These are designed to test a candidate's ability to dissect and analyze arguments.

Reading comprehension questions: this section contains four passages of 400-500 words and 26-28 questions; each passage is followed by 5-8 questions. These questions measure the candidate's ability to read and understand the lengthy and complex literature. The candidates are usually asked to determine the author's main point of view, find specific information in the passage, draw conclusions from the text, and describe the structure of the passage.

Analytical reasoning questions: this section contains 22-24 questions which are divided into four sets of questions. Every question is asked on the basis of a set of statements and rules that describe relationships among persons, things or events. The candidates are asked to group, match, and order elements. This section is to measure candidate's ability to understand a complex structure of relationships and to draw conclusions from the structure.

The unscored variable section is an experimental section for exploring new questions or new forms for future exams. The placement of this section always vary and the candidates will not be told which section of the exam is the experimental section. The performance of the candidate on this section is not reported as part of the final score.

The writing sample is the final section of the LSAT exam. In this section, the candidates will be provided a writing prompt and two alternatives and then asked to select one over the other. There is no right or wrong answer in choosing which alternative.

The Law School Admission Council will not score this section, but they will digitally scan the essay and send it with the LSAT score to the admission offices. To some admission officers, the quality of the handwriting is much more important than the readability of the essay.


The highest score one can get on the LSAT is 180 while the lowest 120 and the median score around 150. The LSAT score, along with GPA, is not only an effective way of differentiating candidates, but also a method of predicting a candidate's possibility of success throughout law school.

Most admission boards use their own independent admission indexes which is different from each other. It is a formula that applies different weight to the LSAT and undergraduate GPA and adds the results. This composite statistic can have a stronger correlation to the candidate's first year performance than either GPA or LSAT score alone.